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If $chi(g)$ generates a dense subgroup of $chi(G)$ for all $chi$ then $g$ generates a dense subgroup of $G$.


Intersection of all neighborhoods of zero is a subgroupWhat is the correct definition of the cuspidal subspace of $L^2$?How many compatible group structures does a topological space admit?Why is $leftngeqslant 0right$ dense in $X$ iff $xinbigcap_ngeqslant 1bigcup_kgeqslant 0T^-kU_n$?Over a compact space, the set of continuous functions are everywhere dense in the set of all measurable functionsBasic questions about lattices, fundamental domains, and quotient spacesDense subgroup of torsion elementsAre factors corresponding to a sub-$sigma$-algebra unique?Ergodic action of dense subgroupLocally closed dense subgroup of a topological group coincides with the whole group













1












$begingroup$


This question arised from something in Ergodic theory, however this is not necessary to state or answer the question.



Suppose that $G$ is a compact abelian group and $gin G$.



Are the following two equivalent:



  1. For every continuous character $chi:Grightarrow S^1$, $chi(g)$ generates a dense subgroup of $chi(G)$.


  2. $g$ generates a dense subgroup of $G$.


Clearly $2$ implies $1$, but I can't figure out whether the opposite holds.



For those who are interested in the connection with ergodic theory. Property $2$ means that $(G,R_g)$ is an ergodic system, and I ask whether this is equivalent to property 1 which means that all the factors $(chi(G),R_chi(g))$ are ergodic.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    This question arised from something in Ergodic theory, however this is not necessary to state or answer the question.



    Suppose that $G$ is a compact abelian group and $gin G$.



    Are the following two equivalent:



    1. For every continuous character $chi:Grightarrow S^1$, $chi(g)$ generates a dense subgroup of $chi(G)$.


    2. $g$ generates a dense subgroup of $G$.


    Clearly $2$ implies $1$, but I can't figure out whether the opposite holds.



    For those who are interested in the connection with ergodic theory. Property $2$ means that $(G,R_g)$ is an ergodic system, and I ask whether this is equivalent to property 1 which means that all the factors $(chi(G),R_chi(g))$ are ergodic.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      This question arised from something in Ergodic theory, however this is not necessary to state or answer the question.



      Suppose that $G$ is a compact abelian group and $gin G$.



      Are the following two equivalent:



      1. For every continuous character $chi:Grightarrow S^1$, $chi(g)$ generates a dense subgroup of $chi(G)$.


      2. $g$ generates a dense subgroup of $G$.


      Clearly $2$ implies $1$, but I can't figure out whether the opposite holds.



      For those who are interested in the connection with ergodic theory. Property $2$ means that $(G,R_g)$ is an ergodic system, and I ask whether this is equivalent to property 1 which means that all the factors $(chi(G),R_chi(g))$ are ergodic.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      This question arised from something in Ergodic theory, however this is not necessary to state or answer the question.



      Suppose that $G$ is a compact abelian group and $gin G$.



      Are the following two equivalent:



      1. For every continuous character $chi:Grightarrow S^1$, $chi(g)$ generates a dense subgroup of $chi(G)$.


      2. $g$ generates a dense subgroup of $G$.


      Clearly $2$ implies $1$, but I can't figure out whether the opposite holds.



      For those who are interested in the connection with ergodic theory. Property $2$ means that $(G,R_g)$ is an ergodic system, and I ask whether this is equivalent to property 1 which means that all the factors $(chi(G),R_chi(g))$ are ergodic.







      topological-groups ergodic-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 23 at 17:25









      YankoYanko

      8,3492830




      8,3492830




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Short proof: if 2 fails, the group $G/overlinelangle grangle$ is a nontrivial compact abelian group and hence has a nontrivial continuous character $chi$. Then $chi(g)=1$ generates the trivial subgroup, which is not dense in $chi(G)$, so 1 fails.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This is no different than the answer above is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 25 at 9:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
            $endgroup$
            – YCor
            Mar 30 at 13:54



















          1












          $begingroup$

          The answer is Yes!.



          Suppose by contradiction that $1$ holds but $2$ doesn't. Let $H=overlineleft<gright>$, then by assumption $Hleq G$ is a proper subgroup.



          Look at $G/H$. This is a non-trivial group and so admits a non-trivial character $chi:G/Hrightarrow S^1$. We may compose with $Grightarrow G/H$ to obtain a character $tildechi:Grightarrow S^1$ which is trivial on $H$. In particular $tildechi(g)$ is trivial, however $tildechi(G) = chi(G/H)$ is a non-trivial subgroup of $S^1$ - contradiction.



          This completes the proof.



          Edit: I just figured even another answer for that!



          Let $sin G$, for all $chiinhat G$ there exists a net $n_alpha$ such that $chi(g^n_alpha)rightarrow chi(s)$.



          Using a diagonal argument we can choose the same sub-net $n_beta$ for all characters, also by moving into a sub-sub-net if necessary we may assume that $g^n_betarightarrow hin G$. Since all the characters are continuous we have that $chi(h)=chi(s)$ for all $chi$. Using the fact that characters separates points we have that $h=s$, which means that $g^n_beta$ converges to $s$. In particular $sin overlineleft<gright>$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 3:43










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 10:51










          • $begingroup$
            How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:07










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 11:08







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:09












          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Short proof: if 2 fails, the group $G/overlinelangle grangle$ is a nontrivial compact abelian group and hence has a nontrivial continuous character $chi$. Then $chi(g)=1$ generates the trivial subgroup, which is not dense in $chi(G)$, so 1 fails.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This is no different than the answer above is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 25 at 9:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
            $endgroup$
            – YCor
            Mar 30 at 13:54
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Short proof: if 2 fails, the group $G/overlinelangle grangle$ is a nontrivial compact abelian group and hence has a nontrivial continuous character $chi$. Then $chi(g)=1$ generates the trivial subgroup, which is not dense in $chi(G)$, so 1 fails.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This is no different than the answer above is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 25 at 9:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
            $endgroup$
            – YCor
            Mar 30 at 13:54














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Short proof: if 2 fails, the group $G/overlinelangle grangle$ is a nontrivial compact abelian group and hence has a nontrivial continuous character $chi$. Then $chi(g)=1$ generates the trivial subgroup, which is not dense in $chi(G)$, so 1 fails.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Short proof: if 2 fails, the group $G/overlinelangle grangle$ is a nontrivial compact abelian group and hence has a nontrivial continuous character $chi$. Then $chi(g)=1$ generates the trivial subgroup, which is not dense in $chi(G)$, so 1 fails.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 30 at 13:54

























          answered Mar 24 at 20:09









          YCorYCor

          8,5171129




          8,5171129











          • $begingroup$
            This is no different than the answer above is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 25 at 9:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
            $endgroup$
            – YCor
            Mar 30 at 13:54

















          • $begingroup$
            This is no different than the answer above is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 25 at 9:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
            $endgroup$
            – YCor
            Mar 30 at 13:54
















          $begingroup$
          This is no different than the answer above is it?
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 25 at 9:50




          $begingroup$
          This is no different than the answer above is it?
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 25 at 9:50




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
          $endgroup$
          – YCor
          Mar 30 at 13:54





          $begingroup$
          @Yanko yes you're right. I didn't notice that there were two answers in your post, and thought a briefer one would be useful, but actually it's the same argument with slightly different wording. (PS beginning of your answer "is non-trivial" should be "is a proper subgroup".)
          $endgroup$
          – YCor
          Mar 30 at 13:54












          1












          $begingroup$

          The answer is Yes!.



          Suppose by contradiction that $1$ holds but $2$ doesn't. Let $H=overlineleft<gright>$, then by assumption $Hleq G$ is a proper subgroup.



          Look at $G/H$. This is a non-trivial group and so admits a non-trivial character $chi:G/Hrightarrow S^1$. We may compose with $Grightarrow G/H$ to obtain a character $tildechi:Grightarrow S^1$ which is trivial on $H$. In particular $tildechi(g)$ is trivial, however $tildechi(G) = chi(G/H)$ is a non-trivial subgroup of $S^1$ - contradiction.



          This completes the proof.



          Edit: I just figured even another answer for that!



          Let $sin G$, for all $chiinhat G$ there exists a net $n_alpha$ such that $chi(g^n_alpha)rightarrow chi(s)$.



          Using a diagonal argument we can choose the same sub-net $n_beta$ for all characters, also by moving into a sub-sub-net if necessary we may assume that $g^n_betarightarrow hin G$. Since all the characters are continuous we have that $chi(h)=chi(s)$ for all $chi$. Using the fact that characters separates points we have that $h=s$, which means that $g^n_beta$ converges to $s$. In particular $sin overlineleft<gright>$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 3:43










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 10:51










          • $begingroup$
            How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:07










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 11:08







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:09
















          1












          $begingroup$

          The answer is Yes!.



          Suppose by contradiction that $1$ holds but $2$ doesn't. Let $H=overlineleft<gright>$, then by assumption $Hleq G$ is a proper subgroup.



          Look at $G/H$. This is a non-trivial group and so admits a non-trivial character $chi:G/Hrightarrow S^1$. We may compose with $Grightarrow G/H$ to obtain a character $tildechi:Grightarrow S^1$ which is trivial on $H$. In particular $tildechi(g)$ is trivial, however $tildechi(G) = chi(G/H)$ is a non-trivial subgroup of $S^1$ - contradiction.



          This completes the proof.



          Edit: I just figured even another answer for that!



          Let $sin G$, for all $chiinhat G$ there exists a net $n_alpha$ such that $chi(g^n_alpha)rightarrow chi(s)$.



          Using a diagonal argument we can choose the same sub-net $n_beta$ for all characters, also by moving into a sub-sub-net if necessary we may assume that $g^n_betarightarrow hin G$. Since all the characters are continuous we have that $chi(h)=chi(s)$ for all $chi$. Using the fact that characters separates points we have that $h=s$, which means that $g^n_beta$ converges to $s$. In particular $sin overlineleft<gright>$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 3:43










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 10:51










          • $begingroup$
            How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:07










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 11:08







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:09














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The answer is Yes!.



          Suppose by contradiction that $1$ holds but $2$ doesn't. Let $H=overlineleft<gright>$, then by assumption $Hleq G$ is a proper subgroup.



          Look at $G/H$. This is a non-trivial group and so admits a non-trivial character $chi:G/Hrightarrow S^1$. We may compose with $Grightarrow G/H$ to obtain a character $tildechi:Grightarrow S^1$ which is trivial on $H$. In particular $tildechi(g)$ is trivial, however $tildechi(G) = chi(G/H)$ is a non-trivial subgroup of $S^1$ - contradiction.



          This completes the proof.



          Edit: I just figured even another answer for that!



          Let $sin G$, for all $chiinhat G$ there exists a net $n_alpha$ such that $chi(g^n_alpha)rightarrow chi(s)$.



          Using a diagonal argument we can choose the same sub-net $n_beta$ for all characters, also by moving into a sub-sub-net if necessary we may assume that $g^n_betarightarrow hin G$. Since all the characters are continuous we have that $chi(h)=chi(s)$ for all $chi$. Using the fact that characters separates points we have that $h=s$, which means that $g^n_beta$ converges to $s$. In particular $sin overlineleft<gright>$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The answer is Yes!.



          Suppose by contradiction that $1$ holds but $2$ doesn't. Let $H=overlineleft<gright>$, then by assumption $Hleq G$ is a proper subgroup.



          Look at $G/H$. This is a non-trivial group and so admits a non-trivial character $chi:G/Hrightarrow S^1$. We may compose with $Grightarrow G/H$ to obtain a character $tildechi:Grightarrow S^1$ which is trivial on $H$. In particular $tildechi(g)$ is trivial, however $tildechi(G) = chi(G/H)$ is a non-trivial subgroup of $S^1$ - contradiction.



          This completes the proof.



          Edit: I just figured even another answer for that!



          Let $sin G$, for all $chiinhat G$ there exists a net $n_alpha$ such that $chi(g^n_alpha)rightarrow chi(s)$.



          Using a diagonal argument we can choose the same sub-net $n_beta$ for all characters, also by moving into a sub-sub-net if necessary we may assume that $g^n_betarightarrow hin G$. Since all the characters are continuous we have that $chi(h)=chi(s)$ for all $chi$. Using the fact that characters separates points we have that $h=s$, which means that $g^n_beta$ converges to $s$. In particular $sin overlineleft<gright>$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 30 at 14:01

























          answered Mar 23 at 18:56









          YankoYanko

          8,3492830




          8,3492830











          • $begingroup$
            I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 3:43










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 10:51










          • $begingroup$
            How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:07










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 11:08







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:09

















          • $begingroup$
            I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 3:43










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 10:51










          • $begingroup$
            How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:07










          • $begingroup$
            @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
            $endgroup$
            – Yanko
            Mar 29 at 11:08







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
            $endgroup$
            – mathworker21
            Mar 29 at 11:09
















          $begingroup$
          I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 3:43




          $begingroup$
          I think you should be talking about nets rather than sequences
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 3:43












          $begingroup$
          @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 29 at 10:51




          $begingroup$
          @mathworker21 I don't understand the comment. I mean I know what's a net but I don't see why it is relevant here.
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 29 at 10:51












          $begingroup$
          How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 11:07




          $begingroup$
          How do you know "there exists a sequence $n_k$ such that $chi(g^n_k) to chi(s)$"?
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 11:07












          $begingroup$
          @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 29 at 11:08





          $begingroup$
          @mathworker21 $chi(s)$ lies in the closure of $chi(g^n):ninmathbbN$. You're right that $n_k$ is not necessarily increasing (we can assume it is increasing but not monotonically increasing). Is that your point?
          $endgroup$
          – Yanko
          Mar 29 at 11:08





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 11:09





          $begingroup$
          No. My point is that in topological spaces, a point $x$ lies in the closure of a set $E$ iff there is a net $x_alpha$ of points in $E$ converging to $x$. I wonder how you could think my object is to the $n_k$'s being increasing, when I brought up nets.
          $endgroup$
          – mathworker21
          Mar 29 at 11:09


















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