What is value of g'(2) when f(x) and g(x) are inverses and the following is given? [closed]Finding a value so that a given f(x) is continuous at 0Find the derivative with respect to $x$ of the given combination at the given value of $x$.find the value of $f'(5)$ for given functionAlgebraically Deriving a function from a Table of ValuesLimits of the function given by the following graphFind the upper and lower Riemann sums $U(f,P)$ and $L(f,P)$ for discontinuous functionRecognizing Patterns in Alternating Signs Matricies and their InversesHow to prove that $(0,1]$ is equinumerous to $(0,1)$Why abstractly do left and right inverses coincide when $f$ is bijective?Set theory, functions and inverses
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What is value of g'(2) when f(x) and g(x) are inverses and the following is given? [closed]
Finding a value so that a given f(x) is continuous at 0Find the derivative with respect to $x$ of the given combination at the given value of $x$.find the value of $f'(5)$ for given functionAlgebraically Deriving a function from a Table of ValuesLimits of the function given by the following graphFind the upper and lower Riemann sums $U(f,P)$ and $L(f,P)$ for discontinuous functionRecognizing Patterns in Alternating Signs Matricies and their InversesHow to prove that $(0,1]$ is equinumerous to $(0,1)$Why abstractly do left and right inverses coincide when $f$ is bijective?Set theory, functions and inverses
$begingroup$
What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray
Original:

calculus functions inverse-function
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closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray
Original:

calculus functions inverse-function
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techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
1
$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray
Original:

calculus functions inverse-function
New contributor
techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray
Original:

calculus functions inverse-function
calculus functions inverse-function
New contributor
techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
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edited Mar 28 at 15:29
MarianD
2,1281618
2,1281618
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techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked Mar 28 at 14:49
techlovertechlover
11
11
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techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
1
$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11
|
show 3 more comments
1
$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11
1
1
$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11
$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11
|
show 3 more comments
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have
$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$
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$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$
or, for $x=1$,
$$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$
Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.
This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
$begingroup$
You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
$endgroup$
– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as
$$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$

From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain
$$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$
But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:
$$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have
$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have
$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have
$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$
$endgroup$
Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have
$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$
edited Mar 28 at 15:16
answered Mar 28 at 15:01
Dbchatto67Dbchatto67
2,445522
2,445522
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
$begingroup$
f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered Mar 28 at 15:49
Antoine FalckAntoine Falck
1
1
New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$
or, for $x=1$,
$$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$
Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.
This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
$begingroup$
You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
$endgroup$
– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$
or, for $x=1$,
$$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$
Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.
This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
$begingroup$
You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
$endgroup$
– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$
or, for $x=1$,
$$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$
Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.
This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.
$endgroup$
$$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$
or, for $x=1$,
$$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$
Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.
This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.
edited Mar 28 at 16:03
answered Mar 28 at 15:12
st.mathst.math
1,05615
1,05615
$begingroup$
What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
$begingroup$
You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
$endgroup$
– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
add a comment |
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What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
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– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
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You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
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– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
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What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
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– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
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What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
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– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:28
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You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
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– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
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You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
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– st.math
Mar 28 at 16:00
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The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as
$$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$

From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain
$$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$
But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:
$$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$
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The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as
$$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$

From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain
$$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$
But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:
$$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$
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add a comment |
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The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as
$$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$

From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain
$$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$
But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:
$$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$
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The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as
$$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$

From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain
$$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$
But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:
$$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$
answered Mar 28 at 16:06
MarianDMarianD
2,1281618
2,1281618
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1
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Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
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– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52
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Answer is $frac 1 3.$
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– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01
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@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
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– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02
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Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
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– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08
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We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
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– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11