What is value of g'(2) when f(x) and g(x) are inverses and the following is given? [closed]Finding a value so that a given f(x) is continuous at 0Find the derivative with respect to $x$ of the given combination at the given value of $x$.find the value of $f'(5)$ for given functionAlgebraically Deriving a function from a Table of ValuesLimits of the function given by the following graphFind the upper and lower Riemann sums $U(f,P)$ and $L(f,P)$ for discontinuous functionRecognizing Patterns in Alternating Signs Matricies and their InversesHow to prove that $(0,1]$ is equinumerous to $(0,1)$Why abstractly do left and right inverses coincide when $f$ is bijective?Set theory, functions and inverses

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What is value of g'(2) when f(x) and g(x) are inverses and the following is given? [closed]


Finding a value so that a given f(x) is continuous at 0Find the derivative with respect to $x$ of the given combination at the given value of $x$.find the value of $f'(5)$ for given functionAlgebraically Deriving a function from a Table of ValuesLimits of the function given by the following graphFind the upper and lower Riemann sums $U(f,P)$ and $L(f,P)$ for discontinuous functionRecognizing Patterns in Alternating Signs Matricies and their InversesHow to prove that $(0,1]$ is equinumerous to $(0,1)$Why abstractly do left and right inverses coincide when $f$ is bijective?Set theory, functions and inverses













-4












$begingroup$


What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray



Original:












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closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    Mar 28 at 14:52










  • $begingroup$
    Answer is $frac 1 3.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:01










  • $begingroup$
    @Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
    $endgroup$
    – techlover
    Mar 28 at 15:02










  • $begingroup$
    Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 28 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:11
















-4












$begingroup$


What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray



Original:












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techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    Mar 28 at 14:52










  • $begingroup$
    Answer is $frac 1 3.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:01










  • $begingroup$
    @Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
    $endgroup$
    – techlover
    Mar 28 at 15:02










  • $begingroup$
    Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 28 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:11














-4












-4








-4


0



$begingroup$


What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray



Original:












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techlover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$




What is value of $g'(2)$ when $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverses and
beginarray[rlrlrlrlrl]
f&f(2)&=1,quad f(1)&=2,quad f(5)&=7,quad &f(3)&=-2 \
&g(2)&=5,quad g(1)&=4,quad g(5)&=9,quad &g(3)&=-4 \
&f'(2)&=3,quad f'(1)&=6,quad f'(5)&=-1, &f'(3)&=-6\endarray



Original:









calculus functions inverse-function






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edited Mar 28 at 15:29









MarianD

2,1281618




2,1281618






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asked Mar 28 at 14:49









techlovertechlover

11




11




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Check out our Code of Conduct.




closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn Mar 28 at 17:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – RRL, egreg, Michael Rybkin, Adrian Keister, max_zorn
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    Mar 28 at 14:52










  • $begingroup$
    Answer is $frac 1 3.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:01










  • $begingroup$
    @Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
    $endgroup$
    – techlover
    Mar 28 at 15:02










  • $begingroup$
    Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 28 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:11













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    Mar 28 at 14:52










  • $begingroup$
    Answer is $frac 1 3.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:01










  • $begingroup$
    @Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
    $endgroup$
    – techlover
    Mar 28 at 15:02










  • $begingroup$
    Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 28 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 28 at 15:11








1




1




$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52




$begingroup$
Please type the question out instead of just referencing it in a link, and show your efforts. Links can go dead.
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 28 at 14:52












$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01




$begingroup$
Answer is $frac 1 3.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:01












$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02




$begingroup$
@Dbchatto67 Please can you explain ?
$endgroup$
– techlover
Mar 28 at 15:02












$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08




$begingroup$
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverses of each other, then $f(g(x))=x$. Taking derivatives you get that $f'(g(x))cdot g'(x)=1$. Evaluating at $x=2$ you get that $f'(g(2))cdot g'(2)=1$. Since $g(2)=5$ and $f'(5)=-1$, you get that $-g'(2)=1$. Therefore, $g'(2)=-1$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 28 at 15:08












$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11





$begingroup$
We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x.$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Can you proceed now?
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 28 at 15:11











4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.



We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have



$1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
    $endgroup$
    – techlover
    Mar 28 at 15:08



















0












$begingroup$

How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?






share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    $$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$



    or, for $x=1$,



    $$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$



    Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.



    This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
      $endgroup$
      – techlover
      Mar 28 at 15:28











    • $begingroup$
      You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
      $endgroup$
      – st.math
      Mar 28 at 16:00



















    0












    $begingroup$

    The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as



    $$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$



    enter image description here



    From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain



    $$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$



    But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:



    $$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



















      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      0












      $begingroup$

      Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.



      We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have



      $1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
        $endgroup$
        – techlover
        Mar 28 at 15:08
















      0












      $begingroup$

      Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.



      We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have



      $1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
        $endgroup$
        – techlover
        Mar 28 at 15:08














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$

      Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.



      We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have



      $1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Hint $:$ Chain rule for differentiation.



      We know that if $f$ is differentiable at $x$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ then $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $x$ and $(g circ f)'(x) = g'(f(x)) cdot f'(x).$ This is known as chain rule for differentiation. According to your problem $g$ and $f$ are inverses of each other. So in this case $(g circ f) (x) = x, text for all x.$ Here $f(1) = 2.$ Since $g$ is differentiable at $2$ so $(g circ f)$ is differentiable at $1.$ So by using chain rule for differentiation we have



      $1 = (g circ f)' (1) = g'(f(1)) cdot f'(1) = 6 cdot g'(2).$ Therefore $$g'(2) = frac 1 6.$$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 28 at 15:16

























      answered Mar 28 at 15:01









      Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

      2,445522




      2,445522











      • $begingroup$
        f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
        $endgroup$
        – techlover
        Mar 28 at 15:08

















      • $begingroup$
        f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
        $endgroup$
        – techlover
        Mar 28 at 15:08
















      $begingroup$
      f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
      $endgroup$
      – techlover
      Mar 28 at 15:08





      $begingroup$
      f(g(x)) =x ; f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1; Am i doing it correctly ?
      $endgroup$
      – techlover
      Mar 28 at 15:08












      0












      $begingroup$

      How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?






      share|cite|improve this answer








      New contributor




      Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      $endgroup$

















        0












        $begingroup$

        How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?






        share|cite|improve this answer








        New contributor




        Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.






        $endgroup$















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          $endgroup$



          How can $g$ and $f$ be inverses if $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=4$ ?







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




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          answered Mar 28 at 15:49









          Antoine FalckAntoine Falck

          1




          1




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          New contributor





          Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          Antoine Falck is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





















              0












              $begingroup$

              $$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$



              or, for $x=1$,



              $$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$



              Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.



              This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
                $endgroup$
                – techlover
                Mar 28 at 15:28











              • $begingroup$
                You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
                $endgroup$
                – st.math
                Mar 28 at 16:00
















              0












              $begingroup$

              $$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$



              or, for $x=1$,



              $$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$



              Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.



              This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
                $endgroup$
                – techlover
                Mar 28 at 15:28











              • $begingroup$
                You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
                $endgroup$
                – st.math
                Mar 28 at 16:00














              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              $$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$



              or, for $x=1$,



              $$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$



              Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.



              This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              $$g(f(x))=ximplies g'(f(x))cdot f'(x)=1$$



              or, for $x=1$,



              $$g'(2)cdot f'(1)=1iff g'(2)=frac16$$



              Similarly, $$f(g(x))=xiff g'(2)=-1neqfrac16$$ for $x=2$.



              This contradiction means that such a pair of functions $(f,g)$ does not even exist.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Mar 28 at 16:03

























              answered Mar 28 at 15:12









              st.mathst.math

              1,05615




              1,05615











              • $begingroup$
                What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
                $endgroup$
                – techlover
                Mar 28 at 15:28











              • $begingroup$
                You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
                $endgroup$
                – st.math
                Mar 28 at 16:00

















              • $begingroup$
                What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
                $endgroup$
                – techlover
                Mar 28 at 15:28











              • $begingroup$
                You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
                $endgroup$
                – st.math
                Mar 28 at 16:00
















              $begingroup$
              What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
              $endgroup$
              – techlover
              Mar 28 at 15:28





              $begingroup$
              What's wrong with :- f(g(x)) = x or, f'(g(x)) * g'(x) = 1 for x = 2, f'(g(2)) * g'(2) = 1 or, f'(5) * g'(2) = 1 or, -1 * g'(2) = 1 or, g'(2) = -1
              $endgroup$
              – techlover
              Mar 28 at 15:28













              $begingroup$
              You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
              $endgroup$
              – st.math
              Mar 28 at 16:00





              $begingroup$
              You are right; the fact that there are different solutions ($-1$ and $1/6$) implies that such a pair of functions $f,g$ does not exist. Edited my answer to include this fact.
              $endgroup$
              – st.math
              Mar 28 at 16:00












              0












              $begingroup$

              The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as



              $$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$



              enter image description here



              From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain



              $$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$



              But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:



              $$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as



                $$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$



                enter image description here



                From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain



                $$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$



                But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:



                $$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as



                  $$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$



                  enter image description here



                  From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain



                  $$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$



                  But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:



                  $$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The rule for derivative of the inverse function $g$ is as simple as



                  $$g'(y) = 1over f'(x),quad textwhere y = f(x).tag 1$$



                  enter image description here



                  From your table: $2 = f(1), $ so substituting $ y=2, x=1$ into $(1)$ you will obtain



                  $$g'(2) = 1over f'(1) tag 2$$



                  But - from your table, too - $f'(1) = 6, $ so substituting it into $(2)$ you reach your goal:



                  $$colorredg'(2) = 1over 6$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 28 at 16:06









                  MarianDMarianD

                  2,1281618




                  2,1281618













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