Can a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the codomain?Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Why a function whose domain is a proper class does not have a codomain?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Can functions have output values that aren't mapped?Is a surjective function with the same finite domain and finite codomain automatically bijective?Cardinality of the Domain vs Codomain in Surjective (non-injective) & Injective (non-surjective) functionsEvaluating the statement an “An injective (but not surjective) function must have a left inverse”possible for a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the range?Domain in a Surjective FunctionFinding the domain and codomain of an inverse functionSurjective function at a subset of its codomain
What is the fastest integer factorization to break RSA?
What reasons are there for a Capitalist to oppose a 100% inheritance tax?
Were days ever written as ordinal numbers when writing day-month-year?
In Bayesian inference, why are some terms dropped from the posterior predictive?
What is an equivalently powerful replacement spell for Yuan-Ti's Suggestion spell?
Is it possible to create a QR code using text?
Why do I get negative height?
Do Iron Man suits sport waste management systems?
Does the Idaho Potato Commission associate potato skins with healthy eating?
What does the same-ish mean?
In the UK, is it possible to get a referendum by a court decision?
OP Amp not amplifying audio signal
What is the most common color to indicate the input-field is disabled?
Can someone clarify Hamming's notion of important problems in relation to modern academia?
What exactly is ineptocracy?
Forgetting the musical notes while performing in concert
When handwriting 黄 (huáng; yellow) is it incorrect to have a disconnected 草 (cǎo; grass) radical on top?
Convert seconds to minutes
Finitely generated matrix groups whose eigenvalues are all algebraic
Knowledge-based authentication using Domain-driven Design in C#
Standard deduction V. mortgage interest deduction - is it basically only for the rich?
How dangerous is XSS
Processor speed limited at 0.4 Ghz
Machine learning testing data
Can a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the codomain?
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Why a function whose domain is a proper class does not have a codomain?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Can functions have output values that aren't mapped?Is a surjective function with the same finite domain and finite codomain automatically bijective?Cardinality of the Domain vs Codomain in Surjective (non-injective) & Injective (non-surjective) functionsEvaluating the statement an “An injective (but not surjective) function must have a left inverse”possible for a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the range?Domain in a Surjective FunctionFinding the domain and codomain of an inverse functionSurjective function at a subset of its codomain
$begingroup$
I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?
functions elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?
functions elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?
functions elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?
functions elementary-set-theory
functions elementary-set-theory
edited Dec 17 '14 at 22:48
Asaf Karagila♦
307k33440773
307k33440773
asked Dec 17 '14 at 22:38
Mitali PMitali P
162
162
1
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
1
1
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.
This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.
So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.
To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).
Long-winded explanation
So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.
What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.
So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?
The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).
So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.
The real question
Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!
It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.
Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.
Conclusion
If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:
All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.
Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.
See also
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?
Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);
else
createEditor();
);
function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader:
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
,
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);
);
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1072621%2fcan-a-surjective-function-have-an-element-in-the-domain-not-mapped-to-the-codoma%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.
This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.
So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.
This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.
So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.
This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.
So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.
$endgroup$
The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.
This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.
So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.
answered Dec 17 '14 at 22:42
Asaf Karagila♦Asaf Karagila
307k33440773
307k33440773
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.
To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.
To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.
To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.
$endgroup$
No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.
To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.
answered Dec 17 '14 at 22:42
bknbkn
1712
1712
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).
Long-winded explanation
So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.
What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.
So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?
The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).
So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.
The real question
Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!
It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.
Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.
Conclusion
If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:
All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.
Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.
See also
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?
Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).
Long-winded explanation
So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.
What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.
So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?
The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).
So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.
The real question
Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!
It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.
Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.
Conclusion
If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:
All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.
Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.
See also
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?
Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).
Long-winded explanation
So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.
What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.
So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?
The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).
So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.
The real question
Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!
It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.
Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.
Conclusion
If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:
All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.
Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.
See also
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?
Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...
$endgroup$
I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).
Long-winded explanation
So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.
What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.
So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?
The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).
So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.
The real question
Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!
It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.
Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.
Conclusion
If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:
All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.
Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.
See also
Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?
Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...
edited Mar 28 at 17:35
answered Jan 25 at 22:32
Jonathan KomarJonathan Komar
1469
1469
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1072621%2fcan-a-surjective-function-have-an-element-in-the-domain-not-mapped-to-the-codoma%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
1
$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40
$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51