Can a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the codomain?Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Why a function whose domain is a proper class does not have a codomain?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Can functions have output values that aren't mapped?Is a surjective function with the same finite domain and finite codomain automatically bijective?Cardinality of the Domain vs Codomain in Surjective (non-injective) & Injective (non-surjective) functionsEvaluating the statement an “An injective (but not surjective) function must have a left inverse”possible for a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the range?Domain in a Surjective FunctionFinding the domain and codomain of an inverse functionSurjective function at a subset of its codomain

What is the fastest integer factorization to break RSA?

What reasons are there for a Capitalist to oppose a 100% inheritance tax?

Were days ever written as ordinal numbers when writing day-month-year?

In Bayesian inference, why are some terms dropped from the posterior predictive?

What is an equivalently powerful replacement spell for Yuan-Ti's Suggestion spell?

Is it possible to create a QR code using text?

Why do I get negative height?

Do Iron Man suits sport waste management systems?

Does the Idaho Potato Commission associate potato skins with healthy eating?

What does the same-ish mean?

In the UK, is it possible to get a referendum by a court decision?

OP Amp not amplifying audio signal

What is the most common color to indicate the input-field is disabled?

Can someone clarify Hamming's notion of important problems in relation to modern academia?

What exactly is ineptocracy?

Forgetting the musical notes while performing in concert

When handwriting 黄 (huáng; yellow) is it incorrect to have a disconnected 草 (cǎo; grass) radical on top?

Convert seconds to minutes

Finitely generated matrix groups whose eigenvalues are all algebraic

Knowledge-based authentication using Domain-driven Design in C#

Standard deduction V. mortgage interest deduction - is it basically only for the rich?

How dangerous is XSS

Processor speed limited at 0.4 Ghz

Machine learning testing data



Can a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the codomain?


Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Why a function whose domain is a proper class does not have a codomain?Can surjective functions map an element from the domain…Can functions have output values that aren't mapped?Is a surjective function with the same finite domain and finite codomain automatically bijective?Cardinality of the Domain vs Codomain in Surjective (non-injective) & Injective (non-surjective) functionsEvaluating the statement an “An injective (but not surjective) function must have a left inverse”possible for a surjective function have an element in the domain not mapped to the range?Domain in a Surjective FunctionFinding the domain and codomain of an inverse functionSurjective function at a subset of its codomain













3












$begingroup$


I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:51
















3












$begingroup$


I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:51














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have seen a lot of definitions for surjectivity stating that every element in the codomain must be mapped to something in the domain. But does the opposite also have to hold true for a function to maintain its surjectivity?







functions elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 17 '14 at 22:48









Asaf Karagila

307k33440773




307k33440773










asked Dec 17 '14 at 22:38









Mitali PMitali P

162




162







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:51













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
    $endgroup$
    – hardmath
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
    $endgroup$
    – Rob Arthan
    Dec 17 '14 at 22:51








1




1




$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40




$begingroup$
It's more correct to say a function is surjective has every element in the codomain mapped from something in the domain, ie. every value in the codomain is attained by a preimage in the domain.
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Dec 17 '14 at 22:40












$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51





$begingroup$
Where have you seen all these strange (and non-standard) definitions of the standard concept of surjectivity? Some context is needed to clarify what is meant by "domain" and "codomain".
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 17 '14 at 22:51











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.



This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.



So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    2












    $begingroup$

    No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.



    To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      2












      $begingroup$

      I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).



      Long-winded explanation



      So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.



      What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.



      So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?



      The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).



      So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.



      The real question



      Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!



      It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.



      Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.



      Conclusion



      If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:



      1. All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.


      2. Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.


      See also



      • Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?


      • Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













        Your Answer





        StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
        return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
        StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
        StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
        );
        );
        , "mathjax-editing");

        StackExchange.ready(function()
        var channelOptions =
        tags: "".split(" "),
        id: "69"
        ;
        initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

        StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
        // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
        if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
        StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
        createEditor();
        );

        else
        createEditor();

        );

        function createEditor()
        StackExchange.prepareEditor(
        heartbeatType: 'answer',
        autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
        convertImagesToLinks: true,
        noModals: true,
        showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
        reputationToPostImages: 10,
        bindNavPrevention: true,
        postfix: "",
        imageUploader:
        brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
        contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
        allowUrls: true
        ,
        noCode: true, onDemand: true,
        discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
        ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
        );



        );













        draft saved

        draft discarded


















        StackExchange.ready(
        function ()
        StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1072621%2fcan-a-surjective-function-have-an-element-in-the-domain-not-mapped-to-the-codoma%23new-answer', 'question_page');

        );

        Post as a guest















        Required, but never shown

























        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        3












        $begingroup$

        The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.



        This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.



        So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$

















          3












          $begingroup$

          The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.



          This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.



          So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.



            This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.



            So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The definition of a function $f$ from $A$ to $B$, regardless to injectivity or surjectivity, is that the domain of $f$ is $A$, in its entirety.



            This means that if $fcolon Ato B$, then for every $ain A$, there is a unique $bin B$ such that the pair $(a,b)in f$.



            So the converse holds just for it to be a function from $A$ to $B$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 17 '14 at 22:42









            Asaf KaragilaAsaf Karagila

            307k33440773




            307k33440773





















                2












                $begingroup$

                No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.



                To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.



                  To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.



                    To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    No (to your title question), a function $f : A to B$, by definition, gives each $x in A$ a value $f(x) in B$.



                    To be precise, you should have said that "for every element in the codomain, there is (at least) one element which is mapped to it by $f$" for your definition of surjectivity.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 17 '14 at 22:42









                    bknbkn

                    1712




                    1712





















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).



                        Long-winded explanation



                        So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.



                        What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.



                        So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?



                        The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).



                        So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.



                        The real question



                        Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!



                        It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.



                        Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.



                        Conclusion



                        If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:



                        1. All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.


                        2. Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.


                        See also



                        • Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?


                        • Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).



                          Long-winded explanation



                          So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.



                          What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.



                          So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?



                          The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).



                          So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.



                          The real question



                          Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!



                          It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.



                          Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.



                          Conclusion



                          If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:



                          1. All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.


                          2. Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.


                          See also



                          • Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?


                          • Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            2












                            2








                            2





                            $begingroup$

                            I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).



                            Long-winded explanation



                            So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.



                            What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.



                            So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?



                            The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).



                            So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.



                            The real question



                            Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!



                            It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.



                            Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.



                            Conclusion



                            If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:



                            1. All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.


                            2. Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.


                            See also



                            • Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?


                            • Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            I know exactly why that is confusing, and I will try to explain this step by step. The definition of surjectivity does not mention the domain being overfull. That throws some people off when learning this the first time. The reason for your confusion is likely that you skipped over the Cartesian product and function definition topics without understanding their significance (like I did). In short, the fact that every element of a domain maps to a codomain is implied by the definition of a function (it must be well-defined...read more if you're interested).



                            Long-winded explanation



                            So what is a function $f$? Well in set theory, it is a set whose elements are from a relation set, which is called a Cartesian product of sets.



                            What's that? So given sets $A := 1,2,3$ and $B := a,b $, we could define a relation set between them, but first we have to understand what a relation set is. It is every possible ordered combination (tuples) of elements from each set where the first element corresponds to the first set and the second corresponds to the second set (and so on with $>2$ sets). For example, $C := (1,a), (1,b), (2,a), (2,b), (3,a), (3,b)$ (but not including $(a,1), (a,2), (b,1), (b,2), (a,3), (b,3)$, because $anotin A, bnotin A$). Books explain this with a conditional statement like “$A times B := (x,y)$, where the $x$'s are from A and the $y$'s are from B”.



                            So now the critical thing to understand is that a function called $f$ that maps sets $A$ to $B$ ($f : A to B$) takes its elements not directly from $A$, but rather from $C$ above. Now the question is, which elements of $C$ may I use in $f$ such that we can still call $f$ a function?



                            The answer you've been waiting for is here. Your function only exists out of elements of set $C$ (a subset of $C$).



                            So we could make our $f: (1,a), (2,a), (3,a)$, which is well-defined, because all elements of the domain are accounted for (i.e. our functions knows how to handle any input)—not injective, because $a$ is mapped to by multiple elements of the domain.



                            The real question



                            Your question is really, what if I define $f: (1,a), (2,b)$ and leave out $(3,a), (3,b)$. Your function can not handle all domain inputs, therefore is not well defined, and is also not a valid function as most authors would advocate. While you could program a "function" like this, the mathematical definition assumes "well-definedness"—not to mention that your program would be prone to error!



                            It is possible that your function does not map the domain to all elements in the codomain, but it is impossible that your function could "ignore" an element from the domain side of the tuple.



                            Furthermore, there is a rule of correspondence that says the for any one element on the domain side of the tuple, it may only map it to one element of the codomain side of the tuple; in other words, I cannot use both of these tuples: $(1,a),(1,b)$. My domain element $1$ may not map to both $a$ and $b$ (different elements) of the codomain.



                            Conclusion



                            If a function is surjective, then you know two things for certain:



                            1. All of the elements of the codomain correspond to elements of the domain.


                            2. Because of the definition of a function being well defined, the function must know how to handle all elements of the domain.


                            See also



                            • Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?


                            • Can surjective functions map an element from the domain...







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Mar 28 at 17:35

























                            answered Jan 25 at 22:32









                            Jonathan KomarJonathan Komar

                            1469




                            1469



























                                draft saved

                                draft discarded
















































                                Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                                • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                But avoid


                                • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

                                Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                                To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                                draft saved


                                draft discarded














                                StackExchange.ready(
                                function ()
                                StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1072621%2fcan-a-surjective-function-have-an-element-in-the-domain-not-mapped-to-the-codoma%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                                );

                                Post as a guest















                                Required, but never shown





















































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown

































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown







                                Popular posts from this blog

                                Boston (Lincolnshire) Stedsbyld | Berne yn Boston | NavigaasjemenuBoston Borough CouncilBoston, Lincolnshire

                                Ballerup Komuun Stääden an saarpen | Futnuuten | Luke uk diar | Nawigatsjuunwww.ballerup.dkwww.statistikbanken.dk: Tabelle BEF44 (Folketal pr. 1. januar fordelt på byer)Commonskategorii: Ballerup Komuun55° 44′ N, 12° 22′ O

                                Trouble understanding the speech of overseas colleaguesHow can I better understand manager or clients with strong accents?Adding more movement and speech at the fundamental level to a highly-sedentary job?Difficulty in understanding Manager's accent(language and communication)How to adjust yourself where your colleagues are not understanding to you?Understanding manager's expectationsForeigner and colleagues using slangHaving difficulty understanding meetingsHow do you breathe when giving a speech?Trouble Waking Up for Emergencies (On-Call)Problems with colleaguesColleagues feeling insecure when I do my work