Compute the following limit, possibly using a Riemann Sum The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InIs it alright to substitute $0$ for $1/n$ in this limit problem?Evaluate limit of sumsLimit of a Riemann Sum and IntegralHelp calculating a riemann sumlimit of a sequence / riemann sumsFind and prove the limit of $X_n=$ $frac n^1001.01^n$Calculate limit using Riemann sumRiemann sum limitCan we find the limit of the sequence $a_n=frac1n^2+frac1(n+1)^2+frac1(n+2)^2+dots+frac1(2n)^2$ using Riemann sum?Find the limit of a sequence using Riemann sumProving the limit of the following sequenceEvaluate the limit by first recognizing the sum as a Riemann Sum for a function defined on $[0,1]$.

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Compute the following limit, possibly using a Riemann Sum



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InIs it alright to substitute $0$ for $1/n$ in this limit problem?Evaluate limit of sumsLimit of a Riemann Sum and IntegralHelp calculating a riemann sumlimit of a sequence / riemann sumsFind and prove the limit of $X_n=$ $frac n^1001.01^n$Calculate limit using Riemann sumRiemann sum limitCan we find the limit of the sequence $a_n=frac1n^2+frac1(n+1)^2+frac1(n+2)^2+dots+frac1(2n)^2$ using Riemann sum?Find the limit of a sequence using Riemann sumProving the limit of the following sequenceEvaluate the limit by first recognizing the sum as a Riemann Sum for a function defined on $[0,1]$.










6












$begingroup$


$$lim _nto infty sum _k=1^nfrac1n+k+frackn^2$$ I unsuccessfully tried to find two different Riemann Sums converging to the same value close to the given sum so I could use the Squeeze Theorem. Is there any other way to solve this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:10










  • $begingroup$
    Your answer is nice. Liked it.
    $endgroup$
    – King Tut
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:27















6












$begingroup$


$$lim _nto infty sum _k=1^nfrac1n+k+frackn^2$$ I unsuccessfully tried to find two different Riemann Sums converging to the same value close to the given sum so I could use the Squeeze Theorem. Is there any other way to solve this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:10










  • $begingroup$
    Your answer is nice. Liked it.
    $endgroup$
    – King Tut
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:27













6












6








6


1



$begingroup$


$$lim _nto infty sum _k=1^nfrac1n+k+frackn^2$$ I unsuccessfully tried to find two different Riemann Sums converging to the same value close to the given sum so I could use the Squeeze Theorem. Is there any other way to solve this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




$$lim _nto infty sum _k=1^nfrac1n+k+frackn^2$$ I unsuccessfully tried to find two different Riemann Sums converging to the same value close to the given sum so I could use the Squeeze Theorem. Is there any other way to solve this?







calculus limits riemann-sum






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 1 '18 at 17:46









user528021user528021

1879




1879











  • $begingroup$
    Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:10










  • $begingroup$
    Your answer is nice. Liked it.
    $endgroup$
    – King Tut
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:27
















  • $begingroup$
    Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:10










  • $begingroup$
    Your answer is nice. Liked it.
    $endgroup$
    – King Tut
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:27















$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 1 '18 at 18:10




$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says $ln 2$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 1 '18 at 18:10












$begingroup$
Your answer is nice. Liked it.
$endgroup$
– King Tut
Mar 1 '18 at 18:27




$begingroup$
Your answer is nice. Liked it.
$endgroup$
– King Tut
Mar 1 '18 at 18:27










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

It is easy to see that



$$ beginalign
left |sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2-sum_k=1^n frac1n+kright|&=frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frack(n+k+k/n^2)(n+k)\\
&le frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frac1ktag 1
endalign$$



Then, using $sum_k=1^nfrac1k =gamma+log(n) +Oleft(frac1nright)$, we see that the limit of the left-hand side of $(1)$ as $nto infty$ is $0$.



Can you finish now?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 19:01










  • $begingroup$
    @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Mar 1 '18 at 19:11


















10












$begingroup$

Writing this as



$$lim_n to inftyS_nn = lim_n to inftyfrac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1n^2
$$



a technique that often works is to evaluate the double limit



$$lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty frac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1m^2 = lim_m to inftyint_0^1 fracdx1 +x + x/m^2 = int_0^1 fracdx1 +x
$$



where the last step is justified by DCT.



We can justify $ lim_n to infty S_nn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = log 2$ by showing one of the iterated limits exhibits uniform convergence.



An example with more details is given here. The argument for justifying the use of the double limit in this case will be similar.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
    $endgroup$
    – Fimpellizieri
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:03






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Mar 1 '18 at 18:57


















4












$begingroup$

$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
newcommandicmathrmi
newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$

beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]lim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 =
lim _n to infty bracksn^2 over n^2 + 1
sum _k = 1^n1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1
\[5mm] = &
lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
sum _k = 1^inftybracks1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 -
1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n
\[5mm] = &
lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
bracksH_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n -
H_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1
endalign

where $dsH_z$ is a Harmonic Number.




In using the
$dsH_z$ asymptotic behavior as $dsvertsz to infty$, it's straightforward found:




$$
bbxlim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 = lnpars2
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    3












    $begingroup$


    I thought it might be instructive to present a method that relies only on the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.





    First, it is trivial to see that



    $$sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag 1$$




    Second, note that we have



    $$beginalign
    sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2&=sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1+frack/n^2n+kright)\\
    &ge sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1-frack/n^2n+kright)\\
    &ge left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag2
    endalign$$




    Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together reveals



    $$left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+kle sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+k$$



    whence application of the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit



    $$lim_nto inftysum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2=log(2)$$



    as expected!






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      0












      $begingroup$

      The sum under limit is not a Riemann sum, but it differs from a Riemann sum by negligible amount.



      To setup things let's note that by definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinfty frac1nsum_k=1^nf(t_k),,frack-1nleq t_kleq frack n $$ It is easy to guess that the function $f$ involved here is given by $f(x) =1/(1+x)$ and let's choose $$t_1=0,t_k=frack-1n+frack-1n^3,k=2,3dots,n$$ The corresponding Riemann sum is $$S_n=frac1n+frac1nsum_k=2^ndfrac11+dfrack-1n+dfrack-1n^3$$ which can be rewritten as $$S_n=frac1n+sum_k=1^n-1frac1n+k+(k/n^2)$$ If the sum in question is denoted by $S'_n$ then we can see that $$S_n-S'_n=frac1n-frac1n+n+(1/n^2)$$ and clearly the above expression tends to $0$ as $ntoinfty $. The Riemann sum $S_n$ tends to $int_0^1dx/(1+x)=log 2$ and hence the given sum $S'_n$ also tends to $log 2$.



      The same technique has been used in this answer in a simpler manner.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













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        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes








        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        3












        $begingroup$

        It is easy to see that



        $$ beginalign
        left |sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2-sum_k=1^n frac1n+kright|&=frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frack(n+k+k/n^2)(n+k)\\
        &le frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frac1ktag 1
        endalign$$



        Then, using $sum_k=1^nfrac1k =gamma+log(n) +Oleft(frac1nright)$, we see that the limit of the left-hand side of $(1)$ as $nto infty$ is $0$.



        Can you finish now?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:01










        • $begingroup$
          @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:11















        3












        $begingroup$

        It is easy to see that



        $$ beginalign
        left |sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2-sum_k=1^n frac1n+kright|&=frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frack(n+k+k/n^2)(n+k)\\
        &le frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frac1ktag 1
        endalign$$



        Then, using $sum_k=1^nfrac1k =gamma+log(n) +Oleft(frac1nright)$, we see that the limit of the left-hand side of $(1)$ as $nto infty$ is $0$.



        Can you finish now?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:01










        • $begingroup$
          @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:11













        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        It is easy to see that



        $$ beginalign
        left |sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2-sum_k=1^n frac1n+kright|&=frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frack(n+k+k/n^2)(n+k)\\
        &le frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frac1ktag 1
        endalign$$



        Then, using $sum_k=1^nfrac1k =gamma+log(n) +Oleft(frac1nright)$, we see that the limit of the left-hand side of $(1)$ as $nto infty$ is $0$.



        Can you finish now?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It is easy to see that



        $$ beginalign
        left |sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2-sum_k=1^n frac1n+kright|&=frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frack(n+k+k/n^2)(n+k)\\
        &le frac1n^2sum_k=1^n frac1ktag 1
        endalign$$



        Then, using $sum_k=1^nfrac1k =gamma+log(n) +Oleft(frac1nright)$, we see that the limit of the left-hand side of $(1)$ as $nto infty$ is $0$.



        Can you finish now?







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 1 '18 at 18:52









        Mark ViolaMark Viola

        134k1278177




        134k1278177











        • $begingroup$
          Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:01










        • $begingroup$
          @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:11
















        • $begingroup$
          Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:01










        • $begingroup$
          @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 19:11















        $begingroup$
        Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
        $endgroup$
        – RRL
        Mar 1 '18 at 19:01




        $begingroup$
        Mark: Good approach to show the $k/n^2$ is negligible -- which is what this is about.
        $endgroup$
        – RRL
        Mar 1 '18 at 19:01












        $begingroup$
        @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Mar 1 '18 at 19:11




        $begingroup$
        @RRL Indeed, although your methd extends beyond just its application to the problem at hand. Another approach, is to factor $n+k$ out of the denominator and bound the term $frac11+k/(n^2(n+k))$ on both sides then apply the squeeze theorem.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Mar 1 '18 at 19:11











        10












        $begingroup$

        Writing this as



        $$lim_n to inftyS_nn = lim_n to inftyfrac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1n^2
        $$



        a technique that often works is to evaluate the double limit



        $$lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty frac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1m^2 = lim_m to inftyint_0^1 fracdx1 +x + x/m^2 = int_0^1 fracdx1 +x
        $$



        where the last step is justified by DCT.



        We can justify $ lim_n to infty S_nn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = log 2$ by showing one of the iterated limits exhibits uniform convergence.



        An example with more details is given here. The argument for justifying the use of the double limit in this case will be similar.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
          $endgroup$
          – Fimpellizieri
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:03






        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:12










        • $begingroup$
          Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:57















        10












        $begingroup$

        Writing this as



        $$lim_n to inftyS_nn = lim_n to inftyfrac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1n^2
        $$



        a technique that often works is to evaluate the double limit



        $$lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty frac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1m^2 = lim_m to inftyint_0^1 fracdx1 +x + x/m^2 = int_0^1 fracdx1 +x
        $$



        where the last step is justified by DCT.



        We can justify $ lim_n to infty S_nn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = log 2$ by showing one of the iterated limits exhibits uniform convergence.



        An example with more details is given here. The argument for justifying the use of the double limit in this case will be similar.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
          $endgroup$
          – Fimpellizieri
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:03






        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:12










        • $begingroup$
          Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:57













        10












        10








        10





        $begingroup$

        Writing this as



        $$lim_n to inftyS_nn = lim_n to inftyfrac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1n^2
        $$



        a technique that often works is to evaluate the double limit



        $$lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty frac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1m^2 = lim_m to inftyint_0^1 fracdx1 +x + x/m^2 = int_0^1 fracdx1 +x
        $$



        where the last step is justified by DCT.



        We can justify $ lim_n to infty S_nn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = log 2$ by showing one of the iterated limits exhibits uniform convergence.



        An example with more details is given here. The argument for justifying the use of the double limit in this case will be similar.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Writing this as



        $$lim_n to inftyS_nn = lim_n to inftyfrac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1n^2
        $$



        a technique that often works is to evaluate the double limit



        $$lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty frac1nsum _k=1^nfrac11+frackn+fracknfrac1m^2 = lim_m to inftyint_0^1 fracdx1 +x + x/m^2 = int_0^1 fracdx1 +x
        $$



        where the last step is justified by DCT.



        We can justify $ lim_n to infty S_nn = lim_m to infty lim_n to infty S_mn = log 2$ by showing one of the iterated limits exhibits uniform convergence.



        An example with more details is given here. The argument for justifying the use of the double limit in this case will be similar.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 1 '18 at 18:23

























        answered Mar 1 '18 at 18:01









        RRLRRL

        53.5k52574




        53.5k52574











        • $begingroup$
          This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
          $endgroup$
          – Fimpellizieri
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:03






        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:12










        • $begingroup$
          Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:57
















        • $begingroup$
          This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
          $endgroup$
          – Fimpellizieri
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:03






        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:12










        • $begingroup$
          Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark Viola
          Mar 1 '18 at 18:57















        $begingroup$
        This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
        $endgroup$
        – Fimpellizieri
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:03




        $begingroup$
        This is pretty brilliant! Had never seen this technique.
        $endgroup$
        – Fimpellizieri
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:03




        2




        2




        $begingroup$
        @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
        $endgroup$
        – RRL
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:12




        $begingroup$
        @Fimpellizieri: Here is an example with the full justification. Thanks.
        $endgroup$
        – RRL
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:12












        $begingroup$
        Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:57




        $begingroup$
        Well done. And the general result is more powerful than its application here. I posted a solution with a simpler way forward. Let me know your thoughts.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Mar 1 '18 at 18:57











        4












        $begingroup$

        $newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
        newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
        newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
        newcommandddmathrmd
        newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
        newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
        newcommandicmathrmi
        newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
        newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
        newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
        newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
        newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
        newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
        newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$

        beginalign
        &bbox[10px,#ffd]lim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 =
        lim _n to infty bracksn^2 over n^2 + 1
        sum _k = 1^n1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1
        \[5mm] = &
        lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
        sum _k = 1^inftybracks1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 -
        1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n
        \[5mm] = &
        lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
        bracksH_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n -
        H_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1
        endalign

        where $dsH_z$ is a Harmonic Number.




        In using the
        $dsH_z$ asymptotic behavior as $dsvertsz to infty$, it's straightforward found:




        $$
        bbxlim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 = lnpars2
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$

















          4












          $begingroup$

          $newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
          newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
          newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
          newcommandddmathrmd
          newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
          newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
          newcommandicmathrmi
          newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
          newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
          newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
          newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
          newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
          newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
          newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$

          beginalign
          &bbox[10px,#ffd]lim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 =
          lim _n to infty bracksn^2 over n^2 + 1
          sum _k = 1^n1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1
          \[5mm] = &
          lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
          sum _k = 1^inftybracks1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 -
          1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n
          \[5mm] = &
          lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
          bracksH_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n -
          H_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1
          endalign

          where $dsH_z$ is a Harmonic Number.




          In using the
          $dsH_z$ asymptotic behavior as $dsvertsz to infty$, it's straightforward found:




          $$
          bbxlim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 = lnpars2
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            $newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
            newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
            newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
            newcommandddmathrmd
            newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
            newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
            newcommandicmathrmi
            newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
            newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
            newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
            newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
            newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
            newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
            newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$

            beginalign
            &bbox[10px,#ffd]lim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 =
            lim _n to infty bracksn^2 over n^2 + 1
            sum _k = 1^n1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1
            \[5mm] = &
            lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
            sum _k = 1^inftybracks1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 -
            1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n
            \[5mm] = &
            lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
            bracksH_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n -
            H_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1
            endalign

            where $dsH_z$ is a Harmonic Number.




            In using the
            $dsH_z$ asymptotic behavior as $dsvertsz to infty$, it's straightforward found:




            $$
            bbxlim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 = lnpars2
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            $newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
            newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
            newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
            newcommandddmathrmd
            newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
            newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
            newcommandicmathrmi
            newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
            newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
            newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
            newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
            newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
            newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
            newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$

            beginalign
            &bbox[10px,#ffd]lim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 =
            lim _n to infty bracksn^2 over n^2 + 1
            sum _k = 1^n1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1
            \[5mm] = &
            lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
            sum _k = 1^inftybracks1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 -
            1 over k + n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n
            \[5mm] = &
            lim _n to infty bracesn^2 over n^2 + 1
            bracksH_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1 + n -
            H_large n^3/parsn^2 + 1
            endalign

            where $dsH_z$ is a Harmonic Number.




            In using the
            $dsH_z$ asymptotic behavior as $dsvertsz to infty$, it's straightforward found:




            $$
            bbxlim _n to infty sum _k = 1^n1 over n + k + k/n^2 = lnpars2
            $$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 30 at 4:50

























            answered Mar 1 '18 at 20:42









            Felix MarinFelix Marin

            68.9k7110147




            68.9k7110147





















                3












                $begingroup$


                I thought it might be instructive to present a method that relies only on the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.





                First, it is trivial to see that



                $$sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag 1$$




                Second, note that we have



                $$beginalign
                sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2&=sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1+frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                &ge sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1-frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                &ge left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag2
                endalign$$




                Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together reveals



                $$left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+kle sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+k$$



                whence application of the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit



                $$lim_nto inftysum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2=log(2)$$



                as expected!






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  3












                  $begingroup$


                  I thought it might be instructive to present a method that relies only on the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.





                  First, it is trivial to see that



                  $$sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag 1$$




                  Second, note that we have



                  $$beginalign
                  sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2&=sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1+frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                  &ge sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1-frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                  &ge left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag2
                  endalign$$




                  Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together reveals



                  $$left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+kle sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+k$$



                  whence application of the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit



                  $$lim_nto inftysum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2=log(2)$$



                  as expected!






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$


                    I thought it might be instructive to present a method that relies only on the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.





                    First, it is trivial to see that



                    $$sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag 1$$




                    Second, note that we have



                    $$beginalign
                    sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2&=sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1+frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                    &ge sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1-frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                    &ge left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag2
                    endalign$$




                    Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together reveals



                    $$left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+kle sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+k$$



                    whence application of the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit



                    $$lim_nto inftysum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2=log(2)$$



                    as expected!






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$




                    I thought it might be instructive to present a method that relies only on the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.





                    First, it is trivial to see that



                    $$sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag 1$$




                    Second, note that we have



                    $$beginalign
                    sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2&=sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1+frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                    &ge sum_k=1^n frac1(n+k)left(1-frack/n^2n+kright)\\
                    &ge left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+ktag2
                    endalign$$




                    Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together reveals



                    $$left(1-frac1n^2right)sum_k=1^n frac1n+kle sum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2le sum_k=1^n frac1n+k$$



                    whence application of the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit



                    $$lim_nto inftysum_k=1^n frac1n+k+k/n^2=log(2)$$



                    as expected!







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Mar 1 '18 at 20:58









                    Mark ViolaMark Viola

                    134k1278177




                    134k1278177





















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        The sum under limit is not a Riemann sum, but it differs from a Riemann sum by negligible amount.



                        To setup things let's note that by definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinfty frac1nsum_k=1^nf(t_k),,frack-1nleq t_kleq frack n $$ It is easy to guess that the function $f$ involved here is given by $f(x) =1/(1+x)$ and let's choose $$t_1=0,t_k=frack-1n+frack-1n^3,k=2,3dots,n$$ The corresponding Riemann sum is $$S_n=frac1n+frac1nsum_k=2^ndfrac11+dfrack-1n+dfrack-1n^3$$ which can be rewritten as $$S_n=frac1n+sum_k=1^n-1frac1n+k+(k/n^2)$$ If the sum in question is denoted by $S'_n$ then we can see that $$S_n-S'_n=frac1n-frac1n+n+(1/n^2)$$ and clearly the above expression tends to $0$ as $ntoinfty $. The Riemann sum $S_n$ tends to $int_0^1dx/(1+x)=log 2$ and hence the given sum $S'_n$ also tends to $log 2$.



                        The same technique has been used in this answer in a simpler manner.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          The sum under limit is not a Riemann sum, but it differs from a Riemann sum by negligible amount.



                          To setup things let's note that by definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinfty frac1nsum_k=1^nf(t_k),,frack-1nleq t_kleq frack n $$ It is easy to guess that the function $f$ involved here is given by $f(x) =1/(1+x)$ and let's choose $$t_1=0,t_k=frack-1n+frack-1n^3,k=2,3dots,n$$ The corresponding Riemann sum is $$S_n=frac1n+frac1nsum_k=2^ndfrac11+dfrack-1n+dfrack-1n^3$$ which can be rewritten as $$S_n=frac1n+sum_k=1^n-1frac1n+k+(k/n^2)$$ If the sum in question is denoted by $S'_n$ then we can see that $$S_n-S'_n=frac1n-frac1n+n+(1/n^2)$$ and clearly the above expression tends to $0$ as $ntoinfty $. The Riemann sum $S_n$ tends to $int_0^1dx/(1+x)=log 2$ and hence the given sum $S'_n$ also tends to $log 2$.



                          The same technique has been used in this answer in a simpler manner.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            The sum under limit is not a Riemann sum, but it differs from a Riemann sum by negligible amount.



                            To setup things let's note that by definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinfty frac1nsum_k=1^nf(t_k),,frack-1nleq t_kleq frack n $$ It is easy to guess that the function $f$ involved here is given by $f(x) =1/(1+x)$ and let's choose $$t_1=0,t_k=frack-1n+frack-1n^3,k=2,3dots,n$$ The corresponding Riemann sum is $$S_n=frac1n+frac1nsum_k=2^ndfrac11+dfrack-1n+dfrack-1n^3$$ which can be rewritten as $$S_n=frac1n+sum_k=1^n-1frac1n+k+(k/n^2)$$ If the sum in question is denoted by $S'_n$ then we can see that $$S_n-S'_n=frac1n-frac1n+n+(1/n^2)$$ and clearly the above expression tends to $0$ as $ntoinfty $. The Riemann sum $S_n$ tends to $int_0^1dx/(1+x)=log 2$ and hence the given sum $S'_n$ also tends to $log 2$.



                            The same technique has been used in this answer in a simpler manner.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            The sum under limit is not a Riemann sum, but it differs from a Riemann sum by negligible amount.



                            To setup things let's note that by definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinfty frac1nsum_k=1^nf(t_k),,frack-1nleq t_kleq frack n $$ It is easy to guess that the function $f$ involved here is given by $f(x) =1/(1+x)$ and let's choose $$t_1=0,t_k=frack-1n+frack-1n^3,k=2,3dots,n$$ The corresponding Riemann sum is $$S_n=frac1n+frac1nsum_k=2^ndfrac11+dfrack-1n+dfrack-1n^3$$ which can be rewritten as $$S_n=frac1n+sum_k=1^n-1frac1n+k+(k/n^2)$$ If the sum in question is denoted by $S'_n$ then we can see that $$S_n-S'_n=frac1n-frac1n+n+(1/n^2)$$ and clearly the above expression tends to $0$ as $ntoinfty $. The Riemann sum $S_n$ tends to $int_0^1dx/(1+x)=log 2$ and hence the given sum $S'_n$ also tends to $log 2$.



                            The same technique has been used in this answer in a simpler manner.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Mar 31 at 3:11

























                            answered Mar 31 at 3:04









                            Paramanand SinghParamanand Singh

                            51.3k559170




                            51.3k559170



























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