G.C.D. of two elements in a U.F.D. The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InThe height of a principal prime idealPolynomial rings — Inherited properties from coefficient ringAn integral domain with the factorization property and gcd for every two elements is a UFDIdeals in $mathbbZ[X]$ with three generators (and not with two)Let $a$ and $b$ be nonzero elements of the Unique Factorization Domain R. Prove that $a$ and $b$ have a least common multipleShow that there are finitely many different principal idealsSub-modules of free modules: twisting question a littleProper Ideal is a Product of Maximal IdealsConstructing a non principal ideal in a ring which is not a UFDShowing an Artinian ring, all of whose maximal ideals are principal, is a principal ideal ring.

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G.C.D. of two elements in a U.F.D.



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InThe height of a principal prime idealPolynomial rings — Inherited properties from coefficient ringAn integral domain with the factorization property and gcd for every two elements is a UFDIdeals in $mathbbZ[X]$ with three generators (and not with two)Let $a$ and $b$ be nonzero elements of the Unique Factorization Domain R. Prove that $a$ and $b$ have a least common multipleShow that there are finitely many different principal idealsSub-modules of free modules: twisting question a littleProper Ideal is a Product of Maximal IdealsConstructing a non principal ideal in a ring which is not a UFDShowing an Artinian ring, all of whose maximal ideals are principal, is a principal ideal ring.










-1












$begingroup$


The following Theorems are already known:



1)If $R$ is a U.F.D., then g.c.d. of any two elements exists.

2)In a P.I.D., two ideals $(a)$ and $(b)$ are co-maximal iff g.c.d$(a,b)=1.$



My Question:



If $R$ is a U.F.D. and $a,bin Rsetminus$$0$.

Define: $N:$$Rsetminus$$0$$rightarrow mathbbNcup$$0$.

Now, Suppose that g.c.d.$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



My Question:



I want to prove that g.c.d.$(a,b)neq 1.$



My Intuition:



It holds because:

By Theorem 1 above, g.c.d.$(a,b)$ exists.

Suppose, g.c.d.$(a,b)= 1.$
$implies (a),(b)$ are two co-maximal ideals of $R$. [ by Theorem 2 above]
$implies$ for any $ain (a)$ and $b in (b)$
$(N(a),N(b))=1$
$implies$ Contradiction to the assumption that g.c.d$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



Is my Intuition correct? Please provide me some Hints and Insights.



Another Question:

Can the above results be generalized for Integral domains that may not be U.F.D if g.c.d of two elements exists?



Note:
Here, $R$ contains $1neq 0.$
U.F.D.=Unique Factorization Domain
P.I.D.=Principal Ideal Domain










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 30 at 10:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 30 at 12:51










  • $begingroup$
    Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Mar 30 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    @BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 31 at 1:25










  • $begingroup$
    What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Apr 1 at 0:32















-1












$begingroup$


The following Theorems are already known:



1)If $R$ is a U.F.D., then g.c.d. of any two elements exists.

2)In a P.I.D., two ideals $(a)$ and $(b)$ are co-maximal iff g.c.d$(a,b)=1.$



My Question:



If $R$ is a U.F.D. and $a,bin Rsetminus$$0$.

Define: $N:$$Rsetminus$$0$$rightarrow mathbbNcup$$0$.

Now, Suppose that g.c.d.$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



My Question:



I want to prove that g.c.d.$(a,b)neq 1.$



My Intuition:



It holds because:

By Theorem 1 above, g.c.d.$(a,b)$ exists.

Suppose, g.c.d.$(a,b)= 1.$
$implies (a),(b)$ are two co-maximal ideals of $R$. [ by Theorem 2 above]
$implies$ for any $ain (a)$ and $b in (b)$
$(N(a),N(b))=1$
$implies$ Contradiction to the assumption that g.c.d$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



Is my Intuition correct? Please provide me some Hints and Insights.



Another Question:

Can the above results be generalized for Integral domains that may not be U.F.D if g.c.d of two elements exists?



Note:
Here, $R$ contains $1neq 0.$
U.F.D.=Unique Factorization Domain
P.I.D.=Principal Ideal Domain










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 30 at 10:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 30 at 12:51










  • $begingroup$
    Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Mar 30 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    @BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 31 at 1:25










  • $begingroup$
    What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Apr 1 at 0:32













-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


The following Theorems are already known:



1)If $R$ is a U.F.D., then g.c.d. of any two elements exists.

2)In a P.I.D., two ideals $(a)$ and $(b)$ are co-maximal iff g.c.d$(a,b)=1.$



My Question:



If $R$ is a U.F.D. and $a,bin Rsetminus$$0$.

Define: $N:$$Rsetminus$$0$$rightarrow mathbbNcup$$0$.

Now, Suppose that g.c.d.$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



My Question:



I want to prove that g.c.d.$(a,b)neq 1.$



My Intuition:



It holds because:

By Theorem 1 above, g.c.d.$(a,b)$ exists.

Suppose, g.c.d.$(a,b)= 1.$
$implies (a),(b)$ are two co-maximal ideals of $R$. [ by Theorem 2 above]
$implies$ for any $ain (a)$ and $b in (b)$
$(N(a),N(b))=1$
$implies$ Contradiction to the assumption that g.c.d$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



Is my Intuition correct? Please provide me some Hints and Insights.



Another Question:

Can the above results be generalized for Integral domains that may not be U.F.D if g.c.d of two elements exists?



Note:
Here, $R$ contains $1neq 0.$
U.F.D.=Unique Factorization Domain
P.I.D.=Principal Ideal Domain










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The following Theorems are already known:



1)If $R$ is a U.F.D., then g.c.d. of any two elements exists.

2)In a P.I.D., two ideals $(a)$ and $(b)$ are co-maximal iff g.c.d$(a,b)=1.$



My Question:



If $R$ is a U.F.D. and $a,bin Rsetminus$$0$.

Define: $N:$$Rsetminus$$0$$rightarrow mathbbNcup$$0$.

Now, Suppose that g.c.d.$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



My Question:



I want to prove that g.c.d.$(a,b)neq 1.$



My Intuition:



It holds because:

By Theorem 1 above, g.c.d.$(a,b)$ exists.

Suppose, g.c.d.$(a,b)= 1.$
$implies (a),(b)$ are two co-maximal ideals of $R$. [ by Theorem 2 above]
$implies$ for any $ain (a)$ and $b in (b)$
$(N(a),N(b))=1$
$implies$ Contradiction to the assumption that g.c.d$(N(a),N(b))>1.$



Is my Intuition correct? Please provide me some Hints and Insights.



Another Question:

Can the above results be generalized for Integral domains that may not be U.F.D if g.c.d of two elements exists?



Note:
Here, $R$ contains $1neq 0.$
U.F.D.=Unique Factorization Domain
P.I.D.=Principal Ideal Domain







abstract-algebra unique-factorization-domains






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 30 at 10:22









Bernard

124k741117




124k741117










asked Mar 30 at 9:30









KumarKumar

519




519







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 30 at 10:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 30 at 12:51










  • $begingroup$
    Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Mar 30 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    @BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 31 at 1:25










  • $begingroup$
    What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Apr 1 at 0:32












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 30 at 10:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 30 at 12:51










  • $begingroup$
    Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Mar 30 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    @BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kumar
    Mar 31 at 1:25










  • $begingroup$
    What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Apr 1 at 0:32







2




2




$begingroup$
$N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Mar 30 at 10:43




$begingroup$
$N$ is any old map from nonzero elements of $R$ to nonnegative integers?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Mar 30 at 10:43












$begingroup$
Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
$endgroup$
– Kumar
Mar 30 at 12:51




$begingroup$
Yes, But As per my thought, constant maps won't be useful ones for the above question. So, Please avoid those.
$endgroup$
– Kumar
Mar 30 at 12:51












$begingroup$
Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Mar 30 at 23:34




$begingroup$
Please double check the statement of the exercise since it is likely you misread it (or missed some context that further defines $N$)
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Mar 30 at 23:34












$begingroup$
@BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kumar
Mar 31 at 1:25




$begingroup$
@BillDubuque it's my original question. I haven't taken it from some exercise. But the definition of $N$ is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kumar
Mar 31 at 1:25












$begingroup$
What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Apr 1 at 0:32




$begingroup$
What motivated the question? Experience with some specific maps $N$?
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Apr 1 at 0:32










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

As OP confirms that any old nonconstant map $N$ will do, let $R$ be any UFD, let $a,b$ be any two nonzero elements of $R$ with $gcd(a,b)=1$, define $N$ by $N(a)=6$, $N(b)=10$, and $N(c)$ is whatever you like for $cne a$, $cne b$. Then $gcd(N(a),N(b))=gcd(6,10)=2ne1$, but $gcd(a,b)=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Mar 31 at 2:11







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 31 at 2:22











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

As OP confirms that any old nonconstant map $N$ will do, let $R$ be any UFD, let $a,b$ be any two nonzero elements of $R$ with $gcd(a,b)=1$, define $N$ by $N(a)=6$, $N(b)=10$, and $N(c)$ is whatever you like for $cne a$, $cne b$. Then $gcd(N(a),N(b))=gcd(6,10)=2ne1$, but $gcd(a,b)=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Mar 31 at 2:11







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 31 at 2:22















1












$begingroup$

As OP confirms that any old nonconstant map $N$ will do, let $R$ be any UFD, let $a,b$ be any two nonzero elements of $R$ with $gcd(a,b)=1$, define $N$ by $N(a)=6$, $N(b)=10$, and $N(c)$ is whatever you like for $cne a$, $cne b$. Then $gcd(N(a),N(b))=gcd(6,10)=2ne1$, but $gcd(a,b)=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Mar 31 at 2:11







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 31 at 2:22













1












1








1





$begingroup$

As OP confirms that any old nonconstant map $N$ will do, let $R$ be any UFD, let $a,b$ be any two nonzero elements of $R$ with $gcd(a,b)=1$, define $N$ by $N(a)=6$, $N(b)=10$, and $N(c)$ is whatever you like for $cne a$, $cne b$. Then $gcd(N(a),N(b))=gcd(6,10)=2ne1$, but $gcd(a,b)=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



As OP confirms that any old nonconstant map $N$ will do, let $R$ be any UFD, let $a,b$ be any two nonzero elements of $R$ with $gcd(a,b)=1$, define $N$ by $N(a)=6$, $N(b)=10$, and $N(c)$ is whatever you like for $cne a$, $cne b$. Then $gcd(N(a),N(b))=gcd(6,10)=2ne1$, but $gcd(a,b)=1$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 30 at 21:28









Gerry MyersonGerry Myerson

148k8152306




148k8152306







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Mar 31 at 2:11







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 31 at 2:22












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Mar 31 at 2:11







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Mar 31 at 2:22







3




3




$begingroup$
Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Mar 31 at 2:11





$begingroup$
Please excuse my rudeness, @Kumar, but if an example that accords with the definition you have established is not a counterexample to your intuition, that means that your definition does not adequately represent your intuition.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Mar 31 at 2:11





1




1




$begingroup$
What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Mar 31 at 2:22




$begingroup$
What I have written, Kumar, doesn't depend on the countability or otherwise of $R$. It works as long as $R$ has more than two elements.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Mar 31 at 2:22

















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