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Proving $sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2 binommn-k=binomnkbinomn+kk$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InHow to prove that $sum_k=0^n binom nk k^2=2^n-2(n^2+n)$Evaluate $sum_r=0^n binomnrsin rx cos (n-r)x$Prove that $sum_r=1^n frac 1rbinomnr = sum_r=1^n frac 1r(2^r - 1)$Prove $sum_0^n(-1)^ibinomni = 0$Sum of combinatorial series $binom6n3r$ where r varies from 0 to nFind the sum of series: $sum_k=0^n (-1)^k binomnk binom2n-kn$Proving this infinite sum of a product of three binomials: $sumlimits_sbinomn+sk+lbinom ksbinom ls=binom nkbinom nl$Prove $sum_r=0^n binomnr binomn+rr (-2)^r =(-1)^nsum_r=0^n binomnr^2 2^r$Prove that $sum_k = 0^49(-1)^kbinom992k = -2^49$even number - binomial










1












$begingroup$


How can I prove this?
$$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2 binommn-k=binomnkbinomn+kk$$



$$ 0le k le n $$
I developed the expressions, but they are not the same. I do not know if it will be my mistake or the advisor
I tried to solve for the binomial, but I could not, any idea to be able to proceed










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Mar 30 at 9:31










  • $begingroup$
    How can I prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Monica
    Mar 30 at 9:34















1












$begingroup$


How can I prove this?
$$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2 binommn-k=binomnkbinomn+kk$$



$$ 0le k le n $$
I developed the expressions, but they are not the same. I do not know if it will be my mistake or the advisor
I tried to solve for the binomial, but I could not, any idea to be able to proceed










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Mar 30 at 9:31










  • $begingroup$
    How can I prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Monica
    Mar 30 at 9:34













1












1








1





$begingroup$


How can I prove this?
$$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2 binommn-k=binomnkbinomn+kk$$



$$ 0le k le n $$
I developed the expressions, but they are not the same. I do not know if it will be my mistake or the advisor
I tried to solve for the binomial, but I could not, any idea to be able to proceed










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How can I prove this?
$$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2 binommn-k=binomnkbinomn+kk$$



$$ 0le k le n $$
I developed the expressions, but they are not the same. I do not know if it will be my mistake or the advisor
I tried to solve for the binomial, but I could not, any idea to be able to proceed







binomial-coefficients binomial-theorem






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 30 at 11:59









Blue

49.5k870158




49.5k870158










asked Mar 30 at 9:24









MonicaMonica

215




215











  • $begingroup$
    I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Mar 30 at 9:31










  • $begingroup$
    How can I prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Monica
    Mar 30 at 9:34
















  • $begingroup$
    I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Mar 30 at 9:31










  • $begingroup$
    How can I prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Monica
    Mar 30 at 9:34















$begingroup$
I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Mar 30 at 9:31




$begingroup$
I think that they are the same. Try with small numbers to check
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Mar 30 at 9:31












$begingroup$
How can I prove it?
$endgroup$
– Monica
Mar 30 at 9:34




$begingroup$
How can I prove it?
$endgroup$
– Monica
Mar 30 at 9:34










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let us prove the general form of the identity given by @Richard.



$$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc = binom ac binoma+b-ca.$$



Replacing $binom ar binom rc$ with:
$$
binom ar binom rc=fraca!r!(a-r)!fracr!c!(r-c)!
=fraca!c!(a-c)!frac(a-c)!(a-r)!(r-c)!=binom acbinom a-ca-r,
$$

one obtains:
$$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc =
binom acsum_r=0^infty binom br binom a-ca-r
=binom ac binoma+b-ca,
$$

where in the last equality the Vandermonde's identity was used.



Inserting $a=b=n$ and $c=n-k$ yields the identity of OP, as already was pointed out by @Richard.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
    $endgroup$
    – Richard
    Mar 30 at 11:58


















0












$begingroup$

$$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2binommn-k=binomnksum_m=0^nbinomnmbinomkn-m=binomnkbinomn+kn$$where the second equality rests on the vandermonde identity.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    You can use the general identity $$sum_kge0binom akbinom bkbinom kc=binom acbinoma+b-ca$$ Inserting $n$ for $a$ and $b$ and $n-k$ for $c$ yields what you wanted to prove.

    The upper bound of summation can be reduced from $infty$ to $n$ because $binom nk$ is 0 for $kgt n$.



    EDIT: This can be proven using Vandermonde's identity. @user gives a very simple proof in his answer.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
      $endgroup$
      – user
      Mar 30 at 10:43











    Your Answer





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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Let us prove the general form of the identity given by @Richard.



    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc = binom ac binoma+b-ca.$$



    Replacing $binom ar binom rc$ with:
    $$
    binom ar binom rc=fraca!r!(a-r)!fracr!c!(r-c)!
    =fraca!c!(a-c)!frac(a-c)!(a-r)!(r-c)!=binom acbinom a-ca-r,
    $$

    one obtains:
    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc =
    binom acsum_r=0^infty binom br binom a-ca-r
    =binom ac binoma+b-ca,
    $$

    where in the last equality the Vandermonde's identity was used.



    Inserting $a=b=n$ and $c=n-k$ yields the identity of OP, as already was pointed out by @Richard.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
      $endgroup$
      – Richard
      Mar 30 at 11:58















    1












    $begingroup$

    Let us prove the general form of the identity given by @Richard.



    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc = binom ac binoma+b-ca.$$



    Replacing $binom ar binom rc$ with:
    $$
    binom ar binom rc=fraca!r!(a-r)!fracr!c!(r-c)!
    =fraca!c!(a-c)!frac(a-c)!(a-r)!(r-c)!=binom acbinom a-ca-r,
    $$

    one obtains:
    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc =
    binom acsum_r=0^infty binom br binom a-ca-r
    =binom ac binoma+b-ca,
    $$

    where in the last equality the Vandermonde's identity was used.



    Inserting $a=b=n$ and $c=n-k$ yields the identity of OP, as already was pointed out by @Richard.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
      $endgroup$
      – Richard
      Mar 30 at 11:58













    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Let us prove the general form of the identity given by @Richard.



    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc = binom ac binoma+b-ca.$$



    Replacing $binom ar binom rc$ with:
    $$
    binom ar binom rc=fraca!r!(a-r)!fracr!c!(r-c)!
    =fraca!c!(a-c)!frac(a-c)!(a-r)!(r-c)!=binom acbinom a-ca-r,
    $$

    one obtains:
    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc =
    binom acsum_r=0^infty binom br binom a-ca-r
    =binom ac binoma+b-ca,
    $$

    where in the last equality the Vandermonde's identity was used.



    Inserting $a=b=n$ and $c=n-k$ yields the identity of OP, as already was pointed out by @Richard.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Let us prove the general form of the identity given by @Richard.



    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc = binom ac binoma+b-ca.$$



    Replacing $binom ar binom rc$ with:
    $$
    binom ar binom rc=fraca!r!(a-r)!fracr!c!(r-c)!
    =fraca!c!(a-c)!frac(a-c)!(a-r)!(r-c)!=binom acbinom a-ca-r,
    $$

    one obtains:
    $$sum_r=0^infty binom ar binom br binom rc =
    binom acsum_r=0^infty binom br binom a-ca-r
    =binom ac binoma+b-ca,
    $$

    where in the last equality the Vandermonde's identity was used.



    Inserting $a=b=n$ and $c=n-k$ yields the identity of OP, as already was pointed out by @Richard.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 30 at 15:41

























    answered Mar 30 at 11:42









    useruser

    6,41811031




    6,41811031











    • $begingroup$
      Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
      $endgroup$
      – Richard
      Mar 30 at 11:58
















    • $begingroup$
      Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
      $endgroup$
      – Richard
      Mar 30 at 11:58















    $begingroup$
    Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
    $endgroup$
    – Richard
    Mar 30 at 11:58




    $begingroup$
    Didn't know this identity was named after Vandermonde, and much simpler proof than mine. 1:0 for you, @user. +1
    $endgroup$
    – Richard
    Mar 30 at 11:58











    0












    $begingroup$

    $$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2binommn-k=binomnksum_m=0^nbinomnmbinomkn-m=binomnkbinomn+kn$$where the second equality rests on the vandermonde identity.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      $$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2binommn-k=binomnksum_m=0^nbinomnmbinomkn-m=binomnkbinomn+kn$$where the second equality rests on the vandermonde identity.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2binommn-k=binomnksum_m=0^nbinomnmbinomkn-m=binomnkbinomn+kn$$where the second equality rests on the vandermonde identity.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $$sum_m=0^nbinomnm^2binommn-k=binomnksum_m=0^nbinomnmbinomkn-m=binomnkbinomn+kn$$where the second equality rests on the vandermonde identity.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 30 at 11:20









        drhabdrhab

        104k545136




        104k545136





















            0












            $begingroup$

            You can use the general identity $$sum_kge0binom akbinom bkbinom kc=binom acbinoma+b-ca$$ Inserting $n$ for $a$ and $b$ and $n-k$ for $c$ yields what you wanted to prove.

            The upper bound of summation can be reduced from $infty$ to $n$ because $binom nk$ is 0 for $kgt n$.



            EDIT: This can be proven using Vandermonde's identity. @user gives a very simple proof in his answer.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
              $endgroup$
              – user
              Mar 30 at 10:43















            0












            $begingroup$

            You can use the general identity $$sum_kge0binom akbinom bkbinom kc=binom acbinoma+b-ca$$ Inserting $n$ for $a$ and $b$ and $n-k$ for $c$ yields what you wanted to prove.

            The upper bound of summation can be reduced from $infty$ to $n$ because $binom nk$ is 0 for $kgt n$.



            EDIT: This can be proven using Vandermonde's identity. @user gives a very simple proof in his answer.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
              $endgroup$
              – user
              Mar 30 at 10:43













            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            You can use the general identity $$sum_kge0binom akbinom bkbinom kc=binom acbinoma+b-ca$$ Inserting $n$ for $a$ and $b$ and $n-k$ for $c$ yields what you wanted to prove.

            The upper bound of summation can be reduced from $infty$ to $n$ because $binom nk$ is 0 for $kgt n$.



            EDIT: This can be proven using Vandermonde's identity. @user gives a very simple proof in his answer.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            You can use the general identity $$sum_kge0binom akbinom bkbinom kc=binom acbinoma+b-ca$$ Inserting $n$ for $a$ and $b$ and $n-k$ for $c$ yields what you wanted to prove.

            The upper bound of summation can be reduced from $infty$ to $n$ because $binom nk$ is 0 for $kgt n$.



            EDIT: This can be proven using Vandermonde's identity. @user gives a very simple proof in his answer.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 30 at 11:49

























            answered Mar 30 at 10:07









            RichardRichard

            3751211




            3751211







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
              $endgroup$
              – user
              Mar 30 at 10:43












            • 1




              $begingroup$
              It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
              $endgroup$
              – user
              Mar 30 at 10:43







            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
            $endgroup$
            – user
            Mar 30 at 10:43




            $begingroup$
            It would be nice to give a proof of the general identity or at least a reference to it.
            $endgroup$
            – user
            Mar 30 at 10:43

















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