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Prove sequence in a complete metric space converges if the series of distances converges.



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InFor a sequence of non negative numbers, if the series converges, then the series of the sequence raised to p also converges if p>=1If two sequences converge in a metric space, the sequence of the distances converges to the distance of limits of the sequences.Prove that the space of sequences under this metric is complete and compact.Convergence in a complete metric spaceCauchy sequence in compact metric space converges; incorrect proof?Is a bounded closed subset on a locally compact metric space complete?How to show the Jungle River Metric is CompleteShow that the space $(X,d)$ is not complete and prove its completionProve/Disprove: If $M$ is a complete metric space then the limit points are in $M$The identity map for the euclidean norm (i.e. absolute value) is a complete metric space explanation










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Assume that X is complete, and let $(p_n)$ be a sequence in X. Assume that $sumlimits_n=1^infty d(p_n, p_n+1)$ converges. Prove that $(p_n)$ converges.



(X,d) is a metric space.



Don't quite know how to start. Any help/hints appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    Assume that X is complete, and let $(p_n)$ be a sequence in X. Assume that $sumlimits_n=1^infty d(p_n, p_n+1)$ converges. Prove that $(p_n)$ converges.



    (X,d) is a metric space.



    Don't quite know how to start. Any help/hints appreciated!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Assume that X is complete, and let $(p_n)$ be a sequence in X. Assume that $sumlimits_n=1^infty d(p_n, p_n+1)$ converges. Prove that $(p_n)$ converges.



      (X,d) is a metric space.



      Don't quite know how to start. Any help/hints appreciated!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Assume that X is complete, and let $(p_n)$ be a sequence in X. Assume that $sumlimits_n=1^infty d(p_n, p_n+1)$ converges. Prove that $(p_n)$ converges.



      (X,d) is a metric space.



      Don't quite know how to start. Any help/hints appreciated!







      real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence complete-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 30 at 6:15









      Martin Sleziak

      45k10122277




      45k10122277










      asked Nov 25 '13 at 4:18









      akeenlogicianakeenlogician

      172214




      172214




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          1. How to start: look at the definition of "complete metric space". Every Cauchy sequence converges. OK, we have to show that $(p_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. Using, somehow, the fact that the series of distances converges.


          2. Next, consider the definition of a Cauchy sequence. Given a positive $varepsilon$ we have to show that, if $n$ is big enough, then $d(p_n,p_m)ltvarepsilon$ for all $mgt n$. Right? Is that how the Cauchy criterion is stated in your book?


          3. Hmm. How do we get from $d(p_n,p_n+1)$ to $d(p_n,p_m)$?? The triangle inequality!! If $m=n+k$ then$$d(p_n,p_m)=d(p_n,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+cdots+d(p_n+k-1,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+d(p_n+2,p_n+3)+cdots$$


          4. Hmm. The remainder of a convergent series. Goes to zero, doesn't it?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            HINT: Show that if $sum_nge 1d(p_n,p_n+1)$ converges, then $langle p_n:ninBbb Z^+rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence. If that’s not quite enough, there’s a further hint in the spoiler-protected block below.




            Further HINT: Show that the hypothesis implies that $sum_nge md(p_n,p_n+1)to 0$ as $mtoinfty$.







            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              1. How to start: look at the definition of "complete metric space". Every Cauchy sequence converges. OK, we have to show that $(p_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. Using, somehow, the fact that the series of distances converges.


              2. Next, consider the definition of a Cauchy sequence. Given a positive $varepsilon$ we have to show that, if $n$ is big enough, then $d(p_n,p_m)ltvarepsilon$ for all $mgt n$. Right? Is that how the Cauchy criterion is stated in your book?


              3. Hmm. How do we get from $d(p_n,p_n+1)$ to $d(p_n,p_m)$?? The triangle inequality!! If $m=n+k$ then$$d(p_n,p_m)=d(p_n,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+cdots+d(p_n+k-1,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+d(p_n+2,p_n+3)+cdots$$


              4. Hmm. The remainder of a convergent series. Goes to zero, doesn't it?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                1. How to start: look at the definition of "complete metric space". Every Cauchy sequence converges. OK, we have to show that $(p_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. Using, somehow, the fact that the series of distances converges.


                2. Next, consider the definition of a Cauchy sequence. Given a positive $varepsilon$ we have to show that, if $n$ is big enough, then $d(p_n,p_m)ltvarepsilon$ for all $mgt n$. Right? Is that how the Cauchy criterion is stated in your book?


                3. Hmm. How do we get from $d(p_n,p_n+1)$ to $d(p_n,p_m)$?? The triangle inequality!! If $m=n+k$ then$$d(p_n,p_m)=d(p_n,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+cdots+d(p_n+k-1,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+d(p_n+2,p_n+3)+cdots$$


                4. Hmm. The remainder of a convergent series. Goes to zero, doesn't it?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  1. How to start: look at the definition of "complete metric space". Every Cauchy sequence converges. OK, we have to show that $(p_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. Using, somehow, the fact that the series of distances converges.


                  2. Next, consider the definition of a Cauchy sequence. Given a positive $varepsilon$ we have to show that, if $n$ is big enough, then $d(p_n,p_m)ltvarepsilon$ for all $mgt n$. Right? Is that how the Cauchy criterion is stated in your book?


                  3. Hmm. How do we get from $d(p_n,p_n+1)$ to $d(p_n,p_m)$?? The triangle inequality!! If $m=n+k$ then$$d(p_n,p_m)=d(p_n,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+cdots+d(p_n+k-1,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+d(p_n+2,p_n+3)+cdots$$


                  4. Hmm. The remainder of a convergent series. Goes to zero, doesn't it?






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  1. How to start: look at the definition of "complete metric space". Every Cauchy sequence converges. OK, we have to show that $(p_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence. Using, somehow, the fact that the series of distances converges.


                  2. Next, consider the definition of a Cauchy sequence. Given a positive $varepsilon$ we have to show that, if $n$ is big enough, then $d(p_n,p_m)ltvarepsilon$ for all $mgt n$. Right? Is that how the Cauchy criterion is stated in your book?


                  3. Hmm. How do we get from $d(p_n,p_n+1)$ to $d(p_n,p_m)$?? The triangle inequality!! If $m=n+k$ then$$d(p_n,p_m)=d(p_n,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+cdots+d(p_n+k-1,p_n+k)le d(p_n,p_n+1)+d(p_n+1,p_n+2)+d(p_n+2,p_n+3)+cdots$$


                  4. Hmm. The remainder of a convergent series. Goes to zero, doesn't it?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 25 '13 at 4:40









                  bofbof

                  52.6k559121




                  52.6k559121





















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      HINT: Show that if $sum_nge 1d(p_n,p_n+1)$ converges, then $langle p_n:ninBbb Z^+rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence. If that’s not quite enough, there’s a further hint in the spoiler-protected block below.




                      Further HINT: Show that the hypothesis implies that $sum_nge md(p_n,p_n+1)to 0$ as $mtoinfty$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        HINT: Show that if $sum_nge 1d(p_n,p_n+1)$ converges, then $langle p_n:ninBbb Z^+rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence. If that’s not quite enough, there’s a further hint in the spoiler-protected block below.




                        Further HINT: Show that the hypothesis implies that $sum_nge md(p_n,p_n+1)to 0$ as $mtoinfty$.







                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          HINT: Show that if $sum_nge 1d(p_n,p_n+1)$ converges, then $langle p_n:ninBbb Z^+rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence. If that’s not quite enough, there’s a further hint in the spoiler-protected block below.




                          Further HINT: Show that the hypothesis implies that $sum_nge md(p_n,p_n+1)to 0$ as $mtoinfty$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          HINT: Show that if $sum_nge 1d(p_n,p_n+1)$ converges, then $langle p_n:ninBbb Z^+rangle$ is a Cauchy sequence. If that’s not quite enough, there’s a further hint in the spoiler-protected block below.




                          Further HINT: Show that the hypothesis implies that $sum_nge md(p_n,p_n+1)to 0$ as $mtoinfty$.








                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 25 '13 at 4:29









                          Brian M. ScottBrian M. Scott

                          460k40518919




                          460k40518919



























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