Riemann Integrability of Composite functions. The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InRiemann Integrals - Proving integrabilityRiemann Integrability - Piecewise functionIf $g$ is Riemann-integrable in a closed interval and $f$ is a increasing function in a closed interval, is $gcirc f$ Riemann-integrable?Example of Riemann integrable function which their composition is not Riemann integrableRiemann integrability of $f$ on a [0,1]Riemann integrability of functionRiemann integrability conditionRiemann Integrability of Indicator Functions and DensenessHow to show Riemann integrabilityIntegrability of composition of integrable functions
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Riemann Integrability of Composite functions.
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InRiemann Integrals - Proving integrabilityRiemann Integrability - Piecewise functionIf $g$ is Riemann-integrable in a closed interval and $f$ is a increasing function in a closed interval, is $gcirc f$ Riemann-integrable?Example of Riemann integrable function which their composition is not Riemann integrableRiemann integrability of $f$ on a [0,1]Riemann integrability of functionRiemann integrability conditionRiemann Integrability of Indicator Functions and DensenessHow to show Riemann integrabilityIntegrability of composition of integrable functions
$begingroup$
Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?
I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
$x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.
real-analysis riemann-integration
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?
I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
$x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.
real-analysis riemann-integration
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?
I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
$x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.
real-analysis riemann-integration
$endgroup$
Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?
I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
$x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.
real-analysis riemann-integration
real-analysis riemann-integration
edited Mar 31 at 9:55
Murtaza Wani
asked Mar 30 at 12:28
Murtaza WaniMurtaza Wani
313
313
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.
Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.
edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.
To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.
Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.
edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.
To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.
Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.
edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.
To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.
Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.
edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.
To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.
$endgroup$
Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.
Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.
edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:
Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.
To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.
edited Mar 31 at 5:28
answered Mar 30 at 16:42
MatematletaMatematleta
12.1k21020
12.1k21020
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 3:58
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 5:32
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
$endgroup$
– Murtaza Wani
Mar 31 at 6:33
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
@MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 31 at 19:59
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
$begingroup$
I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 7:31
add a comment |
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