Riemann Integrability of Composite functions. The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InRiemann Integrals - Proving integrabilityRiemann Integrability - Piecewise functionIf $g$ is Riemann-integrable in a closed interval and $f$ is a increasing function in a closed interval, is $gcirc f$ Riemann-integrable?Example of Riemann integrable function which their composition is not Riemann integrableRiemann integrability of $f$ on a [0,1]Riemann integrability of functionRiemann integrability conditionRiemann Integrability of Indicator Functions and DensenessHow to show Riemann integrabilityIntegrability of composition of integrable functions

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Riemann Integrability of Composite functions.



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InRiemann Integrals - Proving integrabilityRiemann Integrability - Piecewise functionIf $g$ is Riemann-integrable in a closed interval and $f$ is a increasing function in a closed interval, is $gcirc f$ Riemann-integrable?Example of Riemann integrable function which their composition is not Riemann integrableRiemann integrability of $f$ on a [0,1]Riemann integrability of functionRiemann integrability conditionRiemann Integrability of Indicator Functions and DensenessHow to show Riemann integrabilityIntegrability of composition of integrable functions










6












$begingroup$


Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?



I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
$x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    6












    $begingroup$


    Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?



    I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
    $x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      6












      6








      6


      1



      $begingroup$


      Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?



      I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
      $x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Function $f$ is continuous and strictly increasing on $[a,b]$ and $g$ is Riemann integrable such that $g circ f$ is defined. Is $g circ f$ Riemann integrable?



      I was able to show that if $f$ additionally satisfies:
      $x_1<x_2 in [a,b] Rightarrow f(x_2)-f(x_1) geq x_2-x_1$, then $g circ f$ is Riemann integrable.







      real-analysis riemann-integration






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 31 at 9:55







      Murtaza Wani

















      asked Mar 30 at 12:28









      Murtaza WaniMurtaza Wani

      313




      313




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.



          Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.



          edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:



          Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.



          To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 3:58










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 5:32










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 6:33










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 19:59











          • $begingroup$
            I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Apr 1 at 7:31











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          2












          $begingroup$

          Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.



          Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.



          edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:



          Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.



          To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 3:58










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 5:32










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 6:33










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 19:59











          • $begingroup$
            I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Apr 1 at 7:31















          2












          $begingroup$

          Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.



          Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.



          edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:



          Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.



          To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 3:58










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 5:32










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 6:33










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 19:59











          • $begingroup$
            I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Apr 1 at 7:31













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.



          Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.



          edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:



          Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.



          To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Use the following fact: a bounded function on a closed interval is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero.



          Now, there is a set $N$ of Lebesgue measure zero such that $g__[f(a),f(b)]setminus N$ is continuous. Then, $gcirc f$ is continuous on $[a,b]setminus N_1$ where $N_1=xin [a,b]:f(x)in N$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero. Thus, $gcirc f__[a,b]setminus N_1$ is continuous and therefore Riemann integrable.



          edit: my proof is wrong. The problem is that "Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $N_1$ also has Lebesgue measure zero" is not true. To find a couterexample, we need a strictly increasing function that maps a set of positive measure to a set of measure zero:



          Let $C$ be the Cantor set, $f:[0,1]to [0,1]$ the Cantor-Lebesgue function, and define $g:[0,1]to [0,2]$ by $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Then, $g$ is strictly increasing, continuous, and maps $C$ to a set of positive measure. Then, $g^-1$ is strictly increasing, continuous and maps $g(C)$ to $C$, a set of measure zero.



          To finish, take any function $f$ whose set of discontinuities occur at precisely the points of $C$, for example $chi_C.$ Then, $f$ is Riemann integrable but $fcirc g^-1$ is discontinuous at the points of $g(C)$, and so is not Riemann integrable.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 31 at 5:28

























          answered Mar 30 at 16:42









          MatematletaMatematleta

          12.1k21020




          12.1k21020











          • $begingroup$
            I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 3:58










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 5:32










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 6:33










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 19:59











          • $begingroup$
            I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Apr 1 at 7:31
















          • $begingroup$
            I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 3:58










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 5:32










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
            $endgroup$
            – Murtaza Wani
            Mar 31 at 6:33










          • $begingroup$
            @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 31 at 19:59











          • $begingroup$
            I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Apr 1 at 7:31















          $begingroup$
          I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
          $endgroup$
          – Murtaza Wani
          Mar 31 at 3:58




          $begingroup$
          I have no familiarity with Lebesgue measure. This example provided here seems to contradict the result above.mathoverflow.net/questions/20045/…
          $endgroup$
          – Murtaza Wani
          Mar 31 at 3:58












          $begingroup$
          @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
          $endgroup$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 31 at 5:32




          $begingroup$
          @MurtazaWani yes, you are right. Please see my edit.
          $endgroup$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 31 at 5:32












          $begingroup$
          Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
          $endgroup$
          – Murtaza Wani
          Mar 31 at 6:33




          $begingroup$
          Thanks @Matematleta. So, your example shows that the conditions assumed in the question are not sufficient. The problem is that I have to familiarize myself with Cantor sets. This is the first time I'm taking a course on Riemann integration. Do you know of any sufficient conditions on f that make gof Riemann integrable, when g is Riemann integrable?
          $endgroup$
          – Murtaza Wani
          Mar 31 at 6:33












          $begingroup$
          @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
          $endgroup$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 31 at 19:59





          $begingroup$
          @MurtazaWani I guess you would need $f$ and $f^-1$ to map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero so if $f$ is $C^1$, strictly increasing then Sard's theorem applies and the result follows.
          $endgroup$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 31 at 19:59













          $begingroup$
          I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Apr 1 at 7:31




          $begingroup$
          I missed this completely. Forgot all about the fat Cantor set. I seem to recall now another counterexample, perhaps more elementary. I’ll see if I can find it.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Apr 1 at 7:31

















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