$X$ Banach, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$ implie that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$. The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InStrong and weak convergence in $ell^1$Hilbert Adjoint Operator from Riesz Representation Theorem - $T^*y=fracleftlangle y,Txrightrangle leftlangle z_0,z_0rightranglez_0$Notion of weak convergence on a normed space without inner productDensity and Pointwise convergence imply strong convergence for Bi-orthogonal system?$int_0^Tint_Ωlangle(u_ncdotnabla)w,u_nrangle dxdttoint_0^Tint_Ωlangle(ucdotnabla)w,urangle dxdt$ if $u_nto u$ weakly and stronglydistance to orthogonal space equals $|langle h,erangle|$[Looking for Confirmation](X,G) is a duality, then (X,G1) is also one iff G1 is dense in GIs $langle Ax,x ranglein overlineM$?$u_n$ converges weakly to $u$ $Leftrightarrow$ $u_n$ is bounded and $langle x^*, u_n rangle to langle x^*, u rangle$Let $H$ be a Hilbert space and $(u_n) subseteq H$ an orthogonal sequence. Show the functional $T(x) = sum_n langle x , u_n rangle$ is bounded.

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$X$ Banach, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$ implie that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$.



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InStrong and weak convergence in $ell^1$Hilbert Adjoint Operator from Riesz Representation Theorem - $T^*y=fracleftlangle y,Txrightrangle leftlangle z_0,z_0rightranglez_0$Notion of weak convergence on a normed space without inner productDensity and Pointwise convergence imply strong convergence for Bi-orthogonal system?$int_0^Tint_Ωlangle(u_ncdotnabla)w,u_nrangle dxdttoint_0^Tint_Ωlangle(ucdotnabla)w,urangle dxdt$ if $u_nto u$ weakly and stronglydistance to orthogonal space equals $|langle h,erangle|$[Looking for Confirmation](X,G) is a duality, then (X,G1) is also one iff G1 is dense in GIs $langle Ax,x ranglein overlineM$?$u_n$ converges weakly to $u$ $Leftrightarrow$ $u_n$ is bounded and $langle x^*, u_n rangle to langle x^*, u rangle$Let $H$ be a Hilbert space and $(u_n) subseteq H$ an orthogonal sequence. Show the functional $T(x) = sum_n langle x , u_n rangle$ is bounded.










0












$begingroup$


Exercise :




Let $X$ be a Banach space, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$. Show that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$.




Attempt-Discussion :



I know that a sequence $x_n^* in X^*$ converges to $x^*$ provided that $x_n^*(u) to x^*(u)$ for all $u in X$. Knowing that the $w^*-$topology coincides the topology of pointwise convergence of linear functionals, this implies that $x_n^* xrightarroww^* x^*$.



Now, I know that the duality brackets given are essentialy the expression of the linear functional, aka : $u mapsto langle x^*, u rangle := x^*(u)$. So essentially, since we have haev that the pointwise convergence is coinciding, we essentialy need to prove that $x^*_n(u_n) to x^*(u)$ and I guess since we have the functional convergence, it boils down to $x^*(u_n) to x^*(u)$ ?



How would one work further to prove the convergence asked ?



Alternatively, we would be interested in showing that $|langle x^*_n, u_nrangle - langle x^*,urangle| < varepsilon$ but I think I am missing something in re-writting the expression by breaking it up to form an arbitrarily small inequality.



Any hints will be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    Exercise :




    Let $X$ be a Banach space, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$. Show that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$.




    Attempt-Discussion :



    I know that a sequence $x_n^* in X^*$ converges to $x^*$ provided that $x_n^*(u) to x^*(u)$ for all $u in X$. Knowing that the $w^*-$topology coincides the topology of pointwise convergence of linear functionals, this implies that $x_n^* xrightarroww^* x^*$.



    Now, I know that the duality brackets given are essentialy the expression of the linear functional, aka : $u mapsto langle x^*, u rangle := x^*(u)$. So essentially, since we have haev that the pointwise convergence is coinciding, we essentialy need to prove that $x^*_n(u_n) to x^*(u)$ and I guess since we have the functional convergence, it boils down to $x^*(u_n) to x^*(u)$ ?



    How would one work further to prove the convergence asked ?



    Alternatively, we would be interested in showing that $|langle x^*_n, u_nrangle - langle x^*,urangle| < varepsilon$ but I think I am missing something in re-writting the expression by breaking it up to form an arbitrarily small inequality.



    Any hints will be greatly appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Exercise :




      Let $X$ be a Banach space, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$. Show that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$.




      Attempt-Discussion :



      I know that a sequence $x_n^* in X^*$ converges to $x^*$ provided that $x_n^*(u) to x^*(u)$ for all $u in X$. Knowing that the $w^*-$topology coincides the topology of pointwise convergence of linear functionals, this implies that $x_n^* xrightarroww^* x^*$.



      Now, I know that the duality brackets given are essentialy the expression of the linear functional, aka : $u mapsto langle x^*, u rangle := x^*(u)$. So essentially, since we have haev that the pointwise convergence is coinciding, we essentialy need to prove that $x^*_n(u_n) to x^*(u)$ and I guess since we have the functional convergence, it boils down to $x^*(u_n) to x^*(u)$ ?



      How would one work further to prove the convergence asked ?



      Alternatively, we would be interested in showing that $|langle x^*_n, u_nrangle - langle x^*,urangle| < varepsilon$ but I think I am missing something in re-writting the expression by breaking it up to form an arbitrarily small inequality.



      Any hints will be greatly appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Exercise :




      Let $X$ be a Banach space, $u_n to u$ and $x^*_n xrightarroww^* x^*$. Show that $langle x^*_n, u_nrangle to langle x^*,urangle$.




      Attempt-Discussion :



      I know that a sequence $x_n^* in X^*$ converges to $x^*$ provided that $x_n^*(u) to x^*(u)$ for all $u in X$. Knowing that the $w^*-$topology coincides the topology of pointwise convergence of linear functionals, this implies that $x_n^* xrightarroww^* x^*$.



      Now, I know that the duality brackets given are essentialy the expression of the linear functional, aka : $u mapsto langle x^*, u rangle := x^*(u)$. So essentially, since we have haev that the pointwise convergence is coinciding, we essentialy need to prove that $x^*_n(u_n) to x^*(u)$ and I guess since we have the functional convergence, it boils down to $x^*(u_n) to x^*(u)$ ?



      How would one work further to prove the convergence asked ?



      Alternatively, we would be interested in showing that $|langle x^*_n, u_nrangle - langle x^*,urangle| < varepsilon$ but I think I am missing something in re-writting the expression by breaking it up to form an arbitrarily small inequality.



      Any hints will be greatly appreciated.







      functional-analysis banach-spaces weak-convergence dual-spaces weak-topology






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 30 at 10:20









      RebellosRebellos

      15.7k31250




      15.7k31250




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Note that by the Banach-Steinhaus theorem $sup_n|x_n^*|<infty$. We find



          $$lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_nrangle-langle x^*,urangle|=lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle+langle x_n^*,urangle-langle x^*,urangle|$$
          $$leqlim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle|+|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|leq lim_nrightarrowinfty|x_n^*||u_n-u|+lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|=0$$
          as $x_n^*stackrelw^*rightarrowx^*$, $u_nrightarrow u$ and $(|x_n^*|)$ is bounded.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            2












            $begingroup$

            Note that by the Banach-Steinhaus theorem $sup_n|x_n^*|<infty$. We find



            $$lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_nrangle-langle x^*,urangle|=lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle+langle x_n^*,urangle-langle x^*,urangle|$$
            $$leqlim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle|+|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|leq lim_nrightarrowinfty|x_n^*||u_n-u|+lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|=0$$
            as $x_n^*stackrelw^*rightarrowx^*$, $u_nrightarrow u$ and $(|x_n^*|)$ is bounded.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              2












              $begingroup$

              Note that by the Banach-Steinhaus theorem $sup_n|x_n^*|<infty$. We find



              $$lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_nrangle-langle x^*,urangle|=lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle+langle x_n^*,urangle-langle x^*,urangle|$$
              $$leqlim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle|+|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|leq lim_nrightarrowinfty|x_n^*||u_n-u|+lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|=0$$
              as $x_n^*stackrelw^*rightarrowx^*$, $u_nrightarrow u$ and $(|x_n^*|)$ is bounded.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                Note that by the Banach-Steinhaus theorem $sup_n|x_n^*|<infty$. We find



                $$lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_nrangle-langle x^*,urangle|=lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle+langle x_n^*,urangle-langle x^*,urangle|$$
                $$leqlim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle|+|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|leq lim_nrightarrowinfty|x_n^*||u_n-u|+lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|=0$$
                as $x_n^*stackrelw^*rightarrowx^*$, $u_nrightarrow u$ and $(|x_n^*|)$ is bounded.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Note that by the Banach-Steinhaus theorem $sup_n|x_n^*|<infty$. We find



                $$lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_nrangle-langle x^*,urangle|=lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle+langle x_n^*,urangle-langle x^*,urangle|$$
                $$leqlim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*,u_n-urangle|+|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|leq lim_nrightarrowinfty|x_n^*||u_n-u|+lim_nrightarrowinfty|langle x_n^*-x^*,urangle|=0$$
                as $x_n^*stackrelw^*rightarrowx^*$, $u_nrightarrow u$ and $(|x_n^*|)$ is bounded.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 30 at 10:54









                Floris ClaassensFloris Claassens

                1,36329




                1,36329



























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