A finite poset $P$ is inductive iff it has a least element The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that for any infinite poset there is an infinite subset which is either linearly ordered or antichain.Building an antichain in a finite posetIf $X$ is inductive, then, $U = x in X mid x $ is transitive and every nonempty $ z subset x$ has an $in$-minimal element $ $ is inductive.Prove $X$ is well ordered.Prob. 5, Sec. 4.1 in Kreyszig's functional analysis book: A finite partially ordered set has a maximal elementShow that the set of prime ideals of A has minimal element with respect to inclusionI'm trying to prove that any finite partially ordered set has a minimal element.Maximal chain with upper bound has at least one elementEvery nonempty subset of $mathbbN$ has a smallest element.If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property.

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A finite poset $P$ is inductive iff it has a least element



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that for any infinite poset there is an infinite subset which is either linearly ordered or antichain.Building an antichain in a finite posetIf $X$ is inductive, then, $U = x in X mid x $ is transitive and every nonempty $ z subset x$ has an $in$-minimal element $ $ is inductive.Prove $X$ is well ordered.Prob. 5, Sec. 4.1 in Kreyszig's functional analysis book: A finite partially ordered set has a maximal elementShow that the set of prime ideals of A has minimal element with respect to inclusionI'm trying to prove that any finite partially ordered set has a minimal element.Maximal chain with upper bound has at least one elementEvery nonempty subset of $mathbbN$ has a smallest element.If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property.










0












$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04
















0












$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04














0












0








0





$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.







proof-verification elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 29 at 3:38







Cute Brownie

















asked Mar 28 at 10:23









Cute BrownieCute Brownie

1,048417




1,048417











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04

















  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04
















$begingroup$
(P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 10:40




$begingroup$
(P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 10:40












$begingroup$
I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 11:46




$begingroup$
I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 11:46












$begingroup$
@Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 11:49




$begingroup$
@Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 11:49












$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 12:00




$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 12:00




1




1




$begingroup$
I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Mar 29 at 2:04





$begingroup$
I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Mar 29 at 2:04











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Triangular numbers and gcdProving sum of a set is $0 pmod n$ if $n$ is odd, or $fracn2 pmod n$ if $n$ is even?Is greatest common divisor of two numbers really their smallest linear combination?GCD, LCM RelationshipProve a set of nonnegative integers with greatest common divisor 1 and closed under addition has all but finite many nonnegative integers.all pairs of a and b in an equation containing gcdTriangular Numbers Modulo $k$ - Hit All Values?Understanding the Existence and Uniqueness of the GCDGCD and LCM with logical symbolsThe greatest common divisor of two positive integers less than 100 is equal to 3. Their least common multiple is twelve times one of the integers.Suppose that for all integers $x$, $x|a$ and $x|b$ if and only if $x|c$. Then $c = gcd(a,b)$Which is the gcd of 2 numbers which are multiplied and the result is 600000?

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