Multidimensional integral Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Technical question regarding using the coarea formula to calculate the relation between the $n$-ball's volume and the $(n-1)$-sphere volumeA relation involving surface integralHow to define Surface Laplacian on the sphere with radius 1Showing some complicated integral expression is boundedBasic surface integral with Stokes.Surface integral over a shifted sphereStokes Theorem - Line integral.Surface of a revolving probability density function given in spherical parameterization.Use Stokes' Theorem to evaluate line integralUsing annother integral to find da for use in an iterated integrand.
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Multidimensional integral
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Technical question regarding using the coarea formula to calculate the relation between the $n$-ball's volume and the $(n-1)$-sphere volumeA relation involving surface integralHow to define Surface Laplacian on the sphere with radius 1Showing some complicated integral expression is boundedBasic surface integral with Stokes.Surface integral over a shifted sphereStokes Theorem - Line integral.Surface of a revolving probability density function given in spherical parameterization.Use Stokes' Theorem to evaluate line integralUsing annother integral to find da for use in an iterated integrand.
$begingroup$
I am trying to understand a proof where the following equality, without any further details, appears:
$$int_B_qe^-ilangle x,trangledx = c(k)int_-q^q e^-i(q^2-y^2)^k/2dy,$$
where $B_q = leq q$, $tinmathbbR^k+1$, $|x| = (x_1^2+ldots + x_k+1^2)^1/2$, $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ is the standard scalar product and $c(k)$ is a constant depending only on $k$.
I am not able to see how can I pass from a $(k+1)$-dimensional integral to 1-dimensional integral. My intuition tells me that this constant $c(k)$ must be related with the surface area of $mathbbS^k=x$ and then the remaining integral will be related with the radius of $B_q$.
multivariable-calculus spherical-coordinates
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to understand a proof where the following equality, without any further details, appears:
$$int_B_qe^-ilangle x,trangledx = c(k)int_-q^q e^-i(q^2-y^2)^k/2dy,$$
where $B_q = leq q$, $tinmathbbR^k+1$, $|x| = (x_1^2+ldots + x_k+1^2)^1/2$, $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ is the standard scalar product and $c(k)$ is a constant depending only on $k$.
I am not able to see how can I pass from a $(k+1)$-dimensional integral to 1-dimensional integral. My intuition tells me that this constant $c(k)$ must be related with the surface area of $mathbbS^k=x$ and then the remaining integral will be related with the radius of $B_q$.
multivariable-calculus spherical-coordinates
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to understand a proof where the following equality, without any further details, appears:
$$int_B_qe^-ilangle x,trangledx = c(k)int_-q^q e^-i(q^2-y^2)^k/2dy,$$
where $B_q = leq q$, $tinmathbbR^k+1$, $|x| = (x_1^2+ldots + x_k+1^2)^1/2$, $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ is the standard scalar product and $c(k)$ is a constant depending only on $k$.
I am not able to see how can I pass from a $(k+1)$-dimensional integral to 1-dimensional integral. My intuition tells me that this constant $c(k)$ must be related with the surface area of $mathbbS^k=x$ and then the remaining integral will be related with the radius of $B_q$.
multivariable-calculus spherical-coordinates
$endgroup$
I am trying to understand a proof where the following equality, without any further details, appears:
$$int_B_qe^-ilangle x,trangledx = c(k)int_-q^q e^-i(q^2-y^2)^k/2dy,$$
where $B_q = leq q$, $tinmathbbR^k+1$, $|x| = (x_1^2+ldots + x_k+1^2)^1/2$, $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ is the standard scalar product and $c(k)$ is a constant depending only on $k$.
I am not able to see how can I pass from a $(k+1)$-dimensional integral to 1-dimensional integral. My intuition tells me that this constant $c(k)$ must be related with the surface area of $mathbbS^k=x$ and then the remaining integral will be related with the radius of $B_q$.
multivariable-calculus spherical-coordinates
multivariable-calculus spherical-coordinates
edited Apr 2 at 17:43
Daniele Tampieri
2,79221023
2,79221023
asked Apr 2 at 17:26
djpoliridjpoliri
135
135
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Let's make a linear variable change that is given by some orthogonal matrix that takes $t$ to $( 0, ldots, 0, |t|)$. Since the Jacobian determinant is 1, and the domain of integration is invariant, we get that the integral we are interested is equal to $int_B_q e^x_k+1 d x_1 ldots d x_k d x_k+1$. Now let's call $x_k+1=y$ and integrate by iteration, with integration with respect with $d x_1 ldots d x_k$ as the inner integral. That becomes $$int_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 e^-i d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-iint_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 1 d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-i c(k)(q^2-y^2)^k/2,$$ where $c(k)$ is the volume of the unit ball in $mathbbR^k$. Now the outer integral is exactly as stated.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let's make a linear variable change that is given by some orthogonal matrix that takes $t$ to $( 0, ldots, 0, |t|)$. Since the Jacobian determinant is 1, and the domain of integration is invariant, we get that the integral we are interested is equal to $int_B_q e^x_k+1 d x_1 ldots d x_k d x_k+1$. Now let's call $x_k+1=y$ and integrate by iteration, with integration with respect with $d x_1 ldots d x_k$ as the inner integral. That becomes $$int_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 e^-i d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-iint_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 1 d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-i c(k)(q^2-y^2)^k/2,$$ where $c(k)$ is the volume of the unit ball in $mathbbR^k$. Now the outer integral is exactly as stated.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's make a linear variable change that is given by some orthogonal matrix that takes $t$ to $( 0, ldots, 0, |t|)$. Since the Jacobian determinant is 1, and the domain of integration is invariant, we get that the integral we are interested is equal to $int_B_q e^x_k+1 d x_1 ldots d x_k d x_k+1$. Now let's call $x_k+1=y$ and integrate by iteration, with integration with respect with $d x_1 ldots d x_k$ as the inner integral. That becomes $$int_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 e^-i d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-iint_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 1 d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-i c(k)(q^2-y^2)^k/2,$$ where $c(k)$ is the volume of the unit ball in $mathbbR^k$. Now the outer integral is exactly as stated.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's make a linear variable change that is given by some orthogonal matrix that takes $t$ to $( 0, ldots, 0, |t|)$. Since the Jacobian determinant is 1, and the domain of integration is invariant, we get that the integral we are interested is equal to $int_B_q e^x_k+1 d x_1 ldots d x_k d x_k+1$. Now let's call $x_k+1=y$ and integrate by iteration, with integration with respect with $d x_1 ldots d x_k$ as the inner integral. That becomes $$int_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 e^-i d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-iint_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 1 d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-i c(k)(q^2-y^2)^k/2,$$ where $c(k)$ is the volume of the unit ball in $mathbbR^k$. Now the outer integral is exactly as stated.
$endgroup$
Let's make a linear variable change that is given by some orthogonal matrix that takes $t$ to $( 0, ldots, 0, |t|)$. Since the Jacobian determinant is 1, and the domain of integration is invariant, we get that the integral we are interested is equal to $int_B_q e^x_k+1 d x_1 ldots d x_k d x_k+1$. Now let's call $x_k+1=y$ and integrate by iteration, with integration with respect with $d x_1 ldots d x_k$ as the inner integral. That becomes $$int_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 e^-i d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-iint_B^k_sqrtq^2-y^2 1 d x_1 ldots d x_k=e^-i c(k)(q^2-y^2)^k/2,$$ where $c(k)$ is the volume of the unit ball in $mathbbR^k$. Now the outer integral is exactly as stated.
edited Apr 2 at 19:28
answered Apr 2 at 19:20
MaxMax
4,7071326
4,7071326
add a comment |
add a comment |
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