Linear maps and Linear independence Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)About Linear IndependenceLinear independence of vectors $w_1,w_2,w_3$Proof Concerning Linear Independence And Maximal SubsetsLinear dependence of set of linear combinations of linearly independent vectorsShowing Linear dependencyLinear independence of projection matricesLinear Independence kept through a Linear Map - Proof AttemptHow to prove that $v_1,v_2$ are linearly independent if $Spv_1,v_2=Spw_1,w_2$ and $v_1,w_2$ are linearly independent?linear independence, vectorspaceslinear transformation of a basis where $T(v_1) = w_1, …, T(v_n) = w_n$

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Linear maps and Linear independence



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)About Linear IndependenceLinear independence of vectors $w_1,w_2,w_3$Proof Concerning Linear Independence And Maximal SubsetsLinear dependence of set of linear combinations of linearly independent vectorsShowing Linear dependencyLinear independence of projection matricesLinear Independence kept through a Linear Map - Proof AttemptHow to prove that $v_1,v_2$ are linearly independent if $Spv_1,v_2=Spw_1,w_2$ and $v_1,w_2$ are linearly independent?linear independence, vectorspaceslinear transformation of a basis where $T(v_1) = w_1, …, T(v_n) = w_n$










0












$begingroup$


If we have a set of linearly independent vectors, can they be mapped to a set of linearly dependent vectors? and vice versa. for example,



Given T : V → W is a linear map where $T(v_1) = w_1,··· ,T(v_n) = w_n$ for some vectors $w_1,··· ,w_n ∈ W$.



I think if the vectors $w_1,...,w_n$ are linearly independent then it doesn't necessarily mean that the vectors $v_1,...,v_n$ must also be linearly independent.
If we let $v_1= c_1v_2+...+c_n-1v_n$ , for some scalars $c$, and similarly write the other vectors in $V$ as linear combinations of each other, then $v_1,...,v_n$ would be dependent but would still be sent to linearly independent vectors in $W$.



Am I on the right track or is there a flaw in my logic/math. Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    If we have a set of linearly independent vectors, can they be mapped to a set of linearly dependent vectors? and vice versa. for example,



    Given T : V → W is a linear map where $T(v_1) = w_1,··· ,T(v_n) = w_n$ for some vectors $w_1,··· ,w_n ∈ W$.



    I think if the vectors $w_1,...,w_n$ are linearly independent then it doesn't necessarily mean that the vectors $v_1,...,v_n$ must also be linearly independent.
    If we let $v_1= c_1v_2+...+c_n-1v_n$ , for some scalars $c$, and similarly write the other vectors in $V$ as linear combinations of each other, then $v_1,...,v_n$ would be dependent but would still be sent to linearly independent vectors in $W$.



    Am I on the right track or is there a flaw in my logic/math. Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      If we have a set of linearly independent vectors, can they be mapped to a set of linearly dependent vectors? and vice versa. for example,



      Given T : V → W is a linear map where $T(v_1) = w_1,··· ,T(v_n) = w_n$ for some vectors $w_1,··· ,w_n ∈ W$.



      I think if the vectors $w_1,...,w_n$ are linearly independent then it doesn't necessarily mean that the vectors $v_1,...,v_n$ must also be linearly independent.
      If we let $v_1= c_1v_2+...+c_n-1v_n$ , for some scalars $c$, and similarly write the other vectors in $V$ as linear combinations of each other, then $v_1,...,v_n$ would be dependent but would still be sent to linearly independent vectors in $W$.



      Am I on the right track or is there a flaw in my logic/math. Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      If we have a set of linearly independent vectors, can they be mapped to a set of linearly dependent vectors? and vice versa. for example,



      Given T : V → W is a linear map where $T(v_1) = w_1,··· ,T(v_n) = w_n$ for some vectors $w_1,··· ,w_n ∈ W$.



      I think if the vectors $w_1,...,w_n$ are linearly independent then it doesn't necessarily mean that the vectors $v_1,...,v_n$ must also be linearly independent.
      If we let $v_1= c_1v_2+...+c_n-1v_n$ , for some scalars $c$, and similarly write the other vectors in $V$ as linear combinations of each other, then $v_1,...,v_n$ would be dependent but would still be sent to linearly independent vectors in $W$.



      Am I on the right track or is there a flaw in my logic/math. Thanks!







      linear-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations






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      asked Apr 2 at 17:53









      Gabriel ChavezGabriel Chavez

      135




      135




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          To adress your first question: Yes, linearly independent vectors may be mapped to linearly dependent vectors, consider for example the constant $0$ map.
          Nevertheless, if you require that the map is injective, linearly independent vectors are mapped to linearly independent vectors which is easy to check.



          To adress the second question: Whenever you have linearly dependent vectors their images will be linearly dependent, too.



          Proof: Let $v_1,dots,v_n$ be linearly dependent, i.e. we can find $lambda_1,dots,lambda_n$ with not all $lambda_i=0$ such that $lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n=0$.
          Then for the images we have
          $$
          lambda_1 T(v_1)+dots + lambda_n T(v_n)=T(lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n)=T(0)=0.
          $$

          Hence, $T(v_1),dots,T(v_n)$ are linearly dependent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            Yes, we can map a set of linearly independent vectors to a set of linearly dependent vectors. Take for instance the linear map represented by the matrix
            $$left[matrix1 & 0\ 0 & 1\ 1& 1right]$$
            The (linearly independent) standard basis of $mathbbR^3$, consisting of $[1,0,0]$, $[0,1,0]$, $[0,0,1]$, gets mapped to the vectors $[1,0]$, $[0,1]$ and $[1,1]$, which obviously form a linearly dependent set of vectors in $mathbbR^2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              0












              $begingroup$

              Suppose that $c_1w_1+...+c_nw_n=0$.



              ie suppose that $T(c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n)=0$ (by linearity and $T(v_i)=w_i$.



              Now if T is injective, you have that $c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n=0$, which in turn implies that $c_i=0$ for all i.



              so $w_1,...w_n$ is linearly independent too.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













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                3 Answers
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                active

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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                0












                $begingroup$

                To adress your first question: Yes, linearly independent vectors may be mapped to linearly dependent vectors, consider for example the constant $0$ map.
                Nevertheless, if you require that the map is injective, linearly independent vectors are mapped to linearly independent vectors which is easy to check.



                To adress the second question: Whenever you have linearly dependent vectors their images will be linearly dependent, too.



                Proof: Let $v_1,dots,v_n$ be linearly dependent, i.e. we can find $lambda_1,dots,lambda_n$ with not all $lambda_i=0$ such that $lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n=0$.
                Then for the images we have
                $$
                lambda_1 T(v_1)+dots + lambda_n T(v_n)=T(lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n)=T(0)=0.
                $$

                Hence, $T(v_1),dots,T(v_n)$ are linearly dependent.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  To adress your first question: Yes, linearly independent vectors may be mapped to linearly dependent vectors, consider for example the constant $0$ map.
                  Nevertheless, if you require that the map is injective, linearly independent vectors are mapped to linearly independent vectors which is easy to check.



                  To adress the second question: Whenever you have linearly dependent vectors their images will be linearly dependent, too.



                  Proof: Let $v_1,dots,v_n$ be linearly dependent, i.e. we can find $lambda_1,dots,lambda_n$ with not all $lambda_i=0$ such that $lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n=0$.
                  Then for the images we have
                  $$
                  lambda_1 T(v_1)+dots + lambda_n T(v_n)=T(lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n)=T(0)=0.
                  $$

                  Hence, $T(v_1),dots,T(v_n)$ are linearly dependent.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    To adress your first question: Yes, linearly independent vectors may be mapped to linearly dependent vectors, consider for example the constant $0$ map.
                    Nevertheless, if you require that the map is injective, linearly independent vectors are mapped to linearly independent vectors which is easy to check.



                    To adress the second question: Whenever you have linearly dependent vectors their images will be linearly dependent, too.



                    Proof: Let $v_1,dots,v_n$ be linearly dependent, i.e. we can find $lambda_1,dots,lambda_n$ with not all $lambda_i=0$ such that $lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n=0$.
                    Then for the images we have
                    $$
                    lambda_1 T(v_1)+dots + lambda_n T(v_n)=T(lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n)=T(0)=0.
                    $$

                    Hence, $T(v_1),dots,T(v_n)$ are linearly dependent.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    To adress your first question: Yes, linearly independent vectors may be mapped to linearly dependent vectors, consider for example the constant $0$ map.
                    Nevertheless, if you require that the map is injective, linearly independent vectors are mapped to linearly independent vectors which is easy to check.



                    To adress the second question: Whenever you have linearly dependent vectors their images will be linearly dependent, too.



                    Proof: Let $v_1,dots,v_n$ be linearly dependent, i.e. we can find $lambda_1,dots,lambda_n$ with not all $lambda_i=0$ such that $lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n=0$.
                    Then for the images we have
                    $$
                    lambda_1 T(v_1)+dots + lambda_n T(v_n)=T(lambda_1 v_1+dots + lambda_n v_n)=T(0)=0.
                    $$

                    Hence, $T(v_1),dots,T(v_n)$ are linearly dependent.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Apr 2 at 18:10









                    Jonas LenzJonas Lenz

                    694215




                    694215





















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes, we can map a set of linearly independent vectors to a set of linearly dependent vectors. Take for instance the linear map represented by the matrix
                        $$left[matrix1 & 0\ 0 & 1\ 1& 1right]$$
                        The (linearly independent) standard basis of $mathbbR^3$, consisting of $[1,0,0]$, $[0,1,0]$, $[0,0,1]$, gets mapped to the vectors $[1,0]$, $[0,1]$ and $[1,1]$, which obviously form a linearly dependent set of vectors in $mathbbR^2$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$

















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Yes, we can map a set of linearly independent vectors to a set of linearly dependent vectors. Take for instance the linear map represented by the matrix
                          $$left[matrix1 & 0\ 0 & 1\ 1& 1right]$$
                          The (linearly independent) standard basis of $mathbbR^3$, consisting of $[1,0,0]$, $[0,1,0]$, $[0,0,1]$, gets mapped to the vectors $[1,0]$, $[0,1]$ and $[1,1]$, which obviously form a linearly dependent set of vectors in $mathbbR^2$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Yes, we can map a set of linearly independent vectors to a set of linearly dependent vectors. Take for instance the linear map represented by the matrix
                            $$left[matrix1 & 0\ 0 & 1\ 1& 1right]$$
                            The (linearly independent) standard basis of $mathbbR^3$, consisting of $[1,0,0]$, $[0,1,0]$, $[0,0,1]$, gets mapped to the vectors $[1,0]$, $[0,1]$ and $[1,1]$, which obviously form a linearly dependent set of vectors in $mathbbR^2$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Yes, we can map a set of linearly independent vectors to a set of linearly dependent vectors. Take for instance the linear map represented by the matrix
                            $$left[matrix1 & 0\ 0 & 1\ 1& 1right]$$
                            The (linearly independent) standard basis of $mathbbR^3$, consisting of $[1,0,0]$, $[0,1,0]$, $[0,0,1]$, gets mapped to the vectors $[1,0]$, $[0,1]$ and $[1,1]$, which obviously form a linearly dependent set of vectors in $mathbbR^2$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Apr 2 at 18:11









                            EvioEvio

                            111




                            111





















                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                Suppose that $c_1w_1+...+c_nw_n=0$.



                                ie suppose that $T(c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n)=0$ (by linearity and $T(v_i)=w_i$.



                                Now if T is injective, you have that $c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n=0$, which in turn implies that $c_i=0$ for all i.



                                so $w_1,...w_n$ is linearly independent too.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$

















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Suppose that $c_1w_1+...+c_nw_n=0$.



                                  ie suppose that $T(c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n)=0$ (by linearity and $T(v_i)=w_i$.



                                  Now if T is injective, you have that $c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n=0$, which in turn implies that $c_i=0$ for all i.



                                  so $w_1,...w_n$ is linearly independent too.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    Suppose that $c_1w_1+...+c_nw_n=0$.



                                    ie suppose that $T(c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n)=0$ (by linearity and $T(v_i)=w_i$.



                                    Now if T is injective, you have that $c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n=0$, which in turn implies that $c_i=0$ for all i.



                                    so $w_1,...w_n$ is linearly independent too.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    Suppose that $c_1w_1+...+c_nw_n=0$.



                                    ie suppose that $T(c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n)=0$ (by linearity and $T(v_i)=w_i$.



                                    Now if T is injective, you have that $c_1v_1+...+c_1v_n=0$, which in turn implies that $c_i=0$ for all i.



                                    so $w_1,...w_n$ is linearly independent too.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Apr 2 at 18:11









                                    AlexandrosAlexandros

                                    1,1051413




                                    1,1051413



























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