How to find Kernel with [ A | 0 ] if dim Ker > 1? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InKernels and reduced row echelon form - explanationFind basis of im, ker and dim im, dim ker verificationKernel and image of linear operatorKernel and composition of linear transforms. I don't want to multiply matrices, should be a theorem.Consider nonzero $A_2times 2$ such that $A^2 = vec0$. Prove or disprove that dim$($ker$(A)) = 2$For linear transformation $f: Vlongrightarrow W$, $dim R(f) + dim ker(f) = dim V$.Relationship between # dimensions in image and kernel of linear transformation called A and # dimensions in basis of image and basis of kernel of A$dim(kervarphicapkerpsi)=n-2$ proofShow that $V=operatornamekernel(f)oplusoperatornameim(f)$Proof for Dim(V) = Dim(Kernel(T)) + Dim(Image(T)): Is this enough to prove it?Compute dim(Ker(T))?

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How to find Kernel with [ A | 0 ] if dim Ker > 1?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InKernels and reduced row echelon form - explanationFind basis of im, ker and dim im, dim ker verificationKernel and image of linear operatorKernel and composition of linear transforms. I don't want to multiply matrices, should be a theorem.Consider nonzero $A_2times 2$ such that $A^2 = vec0$. Prove or disprove that dim$($ker$(A)) = 2$For linear transformation $f: Vlongrightarrow W$, $dim R(f) + dim ker(f) = dim V$.Relationship between # dimensions in image and kernel of linear transformation called A and # dimensions in basis of image and basis of kernel of A$dim(kervarphicapkerpsi)=n-2$ proofShow that $V=operatornamekernel(f)oplusoperatornameim(f)$Proof for Dim(V) = Dim(Kernel(T)) + Dim(Image(T)): Is this enough to prove it?Compute dim(Ker(T))?










1












$begingroup$


I've been looking around for a method to find the basis of the kernel. What I've seen to be the simple method is:



  1. Do REF to the matrix A.

  2. Take the non-pivot columns we will call them k.

  3. Put them in [ k | 0 ] then solve.

Now the thing is that I have trouble in figuring out how this method would work with a dimension greater than 1. How do you get 2 vectors from this method if dim ker A = 2?



I now that by doing [k | 0 ] you will get either 0 or a general solution with free variables. You then need to set the free variable that we will call r to an arbitrary value to get the vector in your kernel basis.



So, when you have dim ker A = 2 and you get a general solution with a free variable r. Do you arbitrarily set r to any value? One time to get a first particular solution that represents your first vector of your basis and a second time to get a second particular solution for you second vector of your basis.



This way you get your two vectors needed to form a base of dimension 2. This is the problem, I am not sure if this is correct.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Mar 30 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    Its not that clear to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr.Stone
    Apr 5 at 1:59















1












$begingroup$


I've been looking around for a method to find the basis of the kernel. What I've seen to be the simple method is:



  1. Do REF to the matrix A.

  2. Take the non-pivot columns we will call them k.

  3. Put them in [ k | 0 ] then solve.

Now the thing is that I have trouble in figuring out how this method would work with a dimension greater than 1. How do you get 2 vectors from this method if dim ker A = 2?



I now that by doing [k | 0 ] you will get either 0 or a general solution with free variables. You then need to set the free variable that we will call r to an arbitrary value to get the vector in your kernel basis.



So, when you have dim ker A = 2 and you get a general solution with a free variable r. Do you arbitrarily set r to any value? One time to get a first particular solution that represents your first vector of your basis and a second time to get a second particular solution for you second vector of your basis.



This way you get your two vectors needed to form a base of dimension 2. This is the problem, I am not sure if this is correct.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Mar 30 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    Its not that clear to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr.Stone
    Apr 5 at 1:59













1












1








1





$begingroup$


I've been looking around for a method to find the basis of the kernel. What I've seen to be the simple method is:



  1. Do REF to the matrix A.

  2. Take the non-pivot columns we will call them k.

  3. Put them in [ k | 0 ] then solve.

Now the thing is that I have trouble in figuring out how this method would work with a dimension greater than 1. How do you get 2 vectors from this method if dim ker A = 2?



I now that by doing [k | 0 ] you will get either 0 or a general solution with free variables. You then need to set the free variable that we will call r to an arbitrary value to get the vector in your kernel basis.



So, when you have dim ker A = 2 and you get a general solution with a free variable r. Do you arbitrarily set r to any value? One time to get a first particular solution that represents your first vector of your basis and a second time to get a second particular solution for you second vector of your basis.



This way you get your two vectors needed to form a base of dimension 2. This is the problem, I am not sure if this is correct.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I've been looking around for a method to find the basis of the kernel. What I've seen to be the simple method is:



  1. Do REF to the matrix A.

  2. Take the non-pivot columns we will call them k.

  3. Put them in [ k | 0 ] then solve.

Now the thing is that I have trouble in figuring out how this method would work with a dimension greater than 1. How do you get 2 vectors from this method if dim ker A = 2?



I now that by doing [k | 0 ] you will get either 0 or a general solution with free variables. You then need to set the free variable that we will call r to an arbitrary value to get the vector in your kernel basis.



So, when you have dim ker A = 2 and you get a general solution with a free variable r. Do you arbitrarily set r to any value? One time to get a first particular solution that represents your first vector of your basis and a second time to get a second particular solution for you second vector of your basis.



This way you get your two vectors needed to form a base of dimension 2. This is the problem, I am not sure if this is correct.







linear-algebra






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 30 at 16:29







Dr.Stone

















asked Mar 30 at 15:09









Dr.StoneDr.Stone

375




375











  • $begingroup$
    See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Mar 30 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    Its not that clear to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr.Stone
    Apr 5 at 1:59
















  • $begingroup$
    See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
    $endgroup$
    – amd
    Mar 30 at 18:39










  • $begingroup$
    Its not that clear to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Dr.Stone
    Apr 5 at 1:59















$begingroup$
See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
$endgroup$
– amd
Mar 30 at 18:39




$begingroup$
See math.stackexchange.com/a/1521354/265466.
$endgroup$
– amd
Mar 30 at 18:39












$begingroup$
Its not that clear to me.
$endgroup$
– Dr.Stone
Apr 5 at 1:59




$begingroup$
Its not that clear to me.
$endgroup$
– Dr.Stone
Apr 5 at 1:59










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