Does $f_n$ converge uniformly? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InDoes $(f_n)$ converge pointwise/uniformly on $I$?If $(f_n)_ngeq 1 to f$ uniformly and $(g_n)_ngeq 1 to g$ uniformly then $(f_n circ g_n)_ngeq 1 to fcirc g$ uniformlyWhy does the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=nx^n(1-x)$ not converge uniformly?Does $f_n(x)=nxe^-nxsin(x)$ converges uniformly on $mathbbR^+$?$(f_n) $ c.uniformly to $f$, $(g_n)$ c. uniformly $g$, $(f_n)(g_n) $ doesn't c. uniformly to $fg$. Informed duplicate.Does $f_n$ converge uniformly on $(0,1) $ and $(0,infty)?$Which of the following sequences $(f_n)$ converge uniformly on [0,1]?Does $f_n$ uniformly converge to $f$?How to show that a series of functions does not converge uniformly?Give a counter example: $f_ncdot g_n$ uniformly convergent then $f_n$ or $g_n$ uniformly convergent.
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Does $f_n$ converge uniformly?
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InDoes $(f_n)$ converge pointwise/uniformly on $I$?If $(f_n)_ngeq 1 to f$ uniformly and $(g_n)_ngeq 1 to g$ uniformly then $(f_n circ g_n)_ngeq 1 to fcirc g$ uniformlyWhy does the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=nx^n(1-x)$ not converge uniformly?Does $f_n(x)=nxe^-nxsin(x)$ converges uniformly on $mathbbR^+$?$(f_n) $ c.uniformly to $f$, $(g_n)$ c. uniformly $g$, $(f_n)(g_n) $ doesn't c. uniformly to $fg$. Informed duplicate.Does $f_n$ converge uniformly on $(0,1) $ and $(0,infty)?$Which of the following sequences $(f_n)$ converge uniformly on [0,1]?Does $f_n$ uniformly converge to $f$?How to show that a series of functions does not converge uniformly?Give a counter example: $f_ncdot g_n$ uniformly convergent then $f_n$ or $g_n$ uniformly convergent.
$begingroup$
So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:
$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.
So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!
For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$
For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?
real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:
$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.
So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!
For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$
For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?
real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:
$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.
So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!
For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$
For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?
real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:
$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.
So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!
For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$
For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?
real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence
real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence
edited Mar 30 at 18:16
José Carlos Santos
174k23133242
174k23133242
asked Mar 30 at 17:59
Thiago AlexandreThiago Alexandre
1347
1347
1
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21
1
1
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.
However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.
The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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votes
$begingroup$
Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.
However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.
However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.
However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.
$endgroup$
Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.
However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.
answered Mar 30 at 18:03
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
174k23133242
174k23133242
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
$begingroup$
Indeed, it is not.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 30 at 18:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.
The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.
The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.
The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals
$endgroup$
You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.
The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals
answered Mar 30 at 18:25
WKhanWKhan
588
588
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03
$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12
$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21