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Does $f_n$ converge uniformly?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InDoes $(f_n)$ converge pointwise/uniformly on $I$?If $(f_n)_ngeq 1 to f$ uniformly and $(g_n)_ngeq 1 to g$ uniformly then $(f_n circ g_n)_ngeq 1 to fcirc g$ uniformlyWhy does the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=nx^n(1-x)$ not converge uniformly?Does $f_n(x)=nxe^-nxsin(x)$ converges uniformly on $mathbbR^+$?$(f_n) $ c.uniformly to $f$, $(g_n)$ c. uniformly $g$, $(f_n)(g_n) $ doesn't c. uniformly to $fg$. Informed duplicate.Does $f_n$ converge uniformly on $(0,1) $ and $(0,infty)?$Which of the following sequences $(f_n)$ converge uniformly on [0,1]?Does $f_n$ uniformly converge to $f$?How to show that a series of functions does not converge uniformly?Give a counter example: $f_ncdot g_n$ uniformly convergent then $f_n$ or $g_n$ uniformly convergent.










1












$begingroup$


So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:



$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.



So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!



For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$

For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:03










  • $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    That is good evidence, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:21















1












$begingroup$


So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:



$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.



So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!



For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$

For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:03










  • $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    That is good evidence, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:21













1












1








1





$begingroup$


So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:



$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.



So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!



For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$

For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




So in my book I read two examples that the sequence of functions converges pointwise but not is an uniformly convergence. These sequences are:



$f_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $f_n (x) = x^n ;;forall n in mathbbN$ and $g_n : [0,1) rightarrow [0,1)$ given by $g_n (x) = fracxn ;;forall n in mathbbN$.



So I could understand that both sequences above has a convergence pointwise. I know why $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergence but I don't understand why $(g_n)$ is not uniformly convergence!



For me, $forall epsilon >0$, there is $n_0 = n_0(epsilon) in mathbbN$ such that $d_infty(g_n, 0) = sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)-0(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]|g_n(x)| =
sup_x in [0,1]Big| fracxnBig| =
fracxn < frac1n < epsilon.
$

For this, just take $n_0 > frac1epsilon$. Thus, the sequence $(g_n)$ is uniformly convergente to function $g equiv 0.$ But my book said that this sequence is not. Can you help me please?







real-analysis analysis uniform-convergence






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 30 at 18:16









José Carlos Santos

174k23133242




174k23133242










asked Mar 30 at 17:59









Thiago AlexandreThiago Alexandre

1347




1347







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:03










  • $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    That is good evidence, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:21












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:03










  • $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    That is good evidence, yes.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 18:21







1




1




$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03




$begingroup$
Are you sure $g_n$ is not defined as $g_ncolon mathbbRtomathbbR$?
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:03












$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12




$begingroup$
I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
$endgroup$
– Thiago Alexandre
Mar 30 at 18:12












$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21




$begingroup$
That is good evidence, yes.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 18:21










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.



However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12










  • $begingroup$
    Indeed, it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 30 at 18:14


















0












$begingroup$

You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.



The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.



    However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
      $endgroup$
      – Thiago Alexandre
      Mar 30 at 18:12










    • $begingroup$
      Indeed, it is not.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Mar 30 at 18:14















    2












    $begingroup$

    Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.



    However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
      $endgroup$
      – Thiago Alexandre
      Mar 30 at 18:12










    • $begingroup$
      Indeed, it is not.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Mar 30 at 18:14













    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.



    However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Of course you don't understand why $(g_n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly. It does! And your proof is fine.



    However, it doesn't converge uniformly in unbounded intervals (such as $mathbb R$ or $[0,infty)$). Perhaps that that's what your textbook says.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Mar 30 at 18:03









    José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

    174k23133242




    174k23133242











    • $begingroup$
      I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
      $endgroup$
      – Thiago Alexandre
      Mar 30 at 18:12










    • $begingroup$
      Indeed, it is not.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Mar 30 at 18:14
















    • $begingroup$
      I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
      $endgroup$
      – Thiago Alexandre
      Mar 30 at 18:12










    • $begingroup$
      Indeed, it is not.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Mar 30 at 18:14















    $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12




    $begingroup$
    I think that you are correct, because the author want to say that if you take out the compactness of the hypothesis, the Dini's theorem is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – Thiago Alexandre
    Mar 30 at 18:12












    $begingroup$
    Indeed, it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 30 at 18:14




    $begingroup$
    Indeed, it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 30 at 18:14











    0












    $begingroup$

    You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.



    The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.



      The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.



        The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You're book may be concern with unbounded intervals. In such case $fracxn$ is not uniformly convergent.



        The fuction is uniformly convergent if it uniformly approaches to its convergent point so the given sequence fails in to converge uniformly on unbounded intervals







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 30 at 18:25









        WKhanWKhan

        588




        588



























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