Linearly Independent Vectors and Row Reduced Matrix Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do you prove that vectors are linearly independent in $ mathcalC[0,1]$?Understanding a proof: Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are realRow reduced matrix $Leftrightarrow$ vectors (rows) are linearly independent.Finding linearly dependent vectors.Adding linearly independent row vectors to a matrix.Proving an Unknown Set of Vectors is Linearly IndependentLinearly independent vectors spanning lower dimensionsRelationship between Row Space and Reduced Row Echelon FormLinearly independent subset and basisSpecific non-singular matrix A and its relation to linearly independent vectors

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Linearly Independent Vectors and Row Reduced Matrix



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do you prove that vectors are linearly independent in $ mathcalC[0,1]$?Understanding a proof: Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are realRow reduced matrix $Leftrightarrow$ vectors (rows) are linearly independent.Finding linearly dependent vectors.Adding linearly independent row vectors to a matrix.Proving an Unknown Set of Vectors is Linearly IndependentLinearly independent vectors spanning lower dimensionsRelationship between Row Space and Reduced Row Echelon FormLinearly independent subset and basisSpecific non-singular matrix A and its relation to linearly independent vectors










0












$begingroup$


so I'm trying to understand this proof, I follow up to



"To obtain a solution x"



Beyond this statement I am having difficulty following the logic, for instance where is j defined? Thanks for any help!



Proof










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    $j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Apr 1 at 1:14















0












$begingroup$


so I'm trying to understand this proof, I follow up to



"To obtain a solution x"



Beyond this statement I am having difficulty following the logic, for instance where is j defined? Thanks for any help!



Proof










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    $j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Apr 1 at 1:14













0












0








0





$begingroup$


so I'm trying to understand this proof, I follow up to



"To obtain a solution x"



Beyond this statement I am having difficulty following the logic, for instance where is j defined? Thanks for any help!



Proof










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




so I'm trying to understand this proof, I follow up to



"To obtain a solution x"



Beyond this statement I am having difficulty following the logic, for instance where is j defined? Thanks for any help!



Proof







linear-algebra proof-explanation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 31 at 23:42









Theo Bendit

21k12355




21k12355










asked Mar 31 at 23:14









PolynomialCPolynomialC

967




967











  • $begingroup$
    $j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Apr 1 at 1:14
















  • $begingroup$
    $j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    Apr 1 at 1:14















$begingroup$
$j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Apr 1 at 1:14




$begingroup$
$j$ is just an index to keep track of the rows of the row-reduced form.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
Apr 1 at 1:14










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

It's not a clearly-worded proof, but the essence is, given a row-reduced matrix with an augmented zero column, we can freely and independently choose values for the variable corresponding to columns without leading $1$s, and the rest of the variables will be determined from this. Try this wording instead:



Consider a system of linear equations, corresponding to an $n times m$ row-reduced matrix with a $0$ column augmented. Suppose $x_i$ is the $i$th variable of the system, corresponding to row $i$ in the matrix, for $i = 1, ldots, m$. Let $k$ be such that $k$th column of the matrix is the leftmost column without a leading $1$.



We define a non-zero solution as follows: let $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$. Let $x_k = 1$. Note that the first $k - 1$ rows of the matrix have leading $1$s in the first, second third, ..., $(k - 1)$th columns, as the $k$th is the leftmost column without a leading $1$. The $(k - 1)$th row must correspond to an equation of the form
$$x_k - 1 + alpha_k x_k + alpha_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + alpha_m x_m = 0.$$
But, $x_k+1 = x_k + 2 = ldots = x_m = 0$ according to our construction, and $x_k = 1$, so we set $x_k - 1 = -alpha_k$.



Then, the $(k - 2)$th row is of the form
$$x_k - 2 + beta_k - 1 x_k - 1 + beta_k x_k + beta_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + beta_m x_m = 0,$$
and so we set $x_k-2 = beta_k-1 alpha_k - beta_k$.



The actual value is unimportant; the important thing is that we can always set a value for every $x_i$ with $1 le i < k$, in such a way that every equation corresponding to a row above the $k$th row is satisfied.



The rows below the $k$th row are easy; they'll be satisfied with $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$.



The point is, we have a solution where $x_k = 1$, which is a distinct solution from the trivial solution. In other words, the vectors $v_1, ldots, v_m$ are linearly dependent, as there are non-trivial linear combinations of these vectors that produce the $0$ vector.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    OK, so I've came to a conclusion.



    So let $x_i$ be any value for the ith zero column and then solve for the nonzero columns.



    Let $j$ denote the non-zero columns obviously $x_j=0$ but the fact that there are zero columns allows x to be non-zero thus x is zero if and only if there is a leading 1 in every column.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      It's not a clearly-worded proof, but the essence is, given a row-reduced matrix with an augmented zero column, we can freely and independently choose values for the variable corresponding to columns without leading $1$s, and the rest of the variables will be determined from this. Try this wording instead:



      Consider a system of linear equations, corresponding to an $n times m$ row-reduced matrix with a $0$ column augmented. Suppose $x_i$ is the $i$th variable of the system, corresponding to row $i$ in the matrix, for $i = 1, ldots, m$. Let $k$ be such that $k$th column of the matrix is the leftmost column without a leading $1$.



      We define a non-zero solution as follows: let $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$. Let $x_k = 1$. Note that the first $k - 1$ rows of the matrix have leading $1$s in the first, second third, ..., $(k - 1)$th columns, as the $k$th is the leftmost column without a leading $1$. The $(k - 1)$th row must correspond to an equation of the form
      $$x_k - 1 + alpha_k x_k + alpha_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + alpha_m x_m = 0.$$
      But, $x_k+1 = x_k + 2 = ldots = x_m = 0$ according to our construction, and $x_k = 1$, so we set $x_k - 1 = -alpha_k$.



      Then, the $(k - 2)$th row is of the form
      $$x_k - 2 + beta_k - 1 x_k - 1 + beta_k x_k + beta_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + beta_m x_m = 0,$$
      and so we set $x_k-2 = beta_k-1 alpha_k - beta_k$.



      The actual value is unimportant; the important thing is that we can always set a value for every $x_i$ with $1 le i < k$, in such a way that every equation corresponding to a row above the $k$th row is satisfied.



      The rows below the $k$th row are easy; they'll be satisfied with $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$.



      The point is, we have a solution where $x_k = 1$, which is a distinct solution from the trivial solution. In other words, the vectors $v_1, ldots, v_m$ are linearly dependent, as there are non-trivial linear combinations of these vectors that produce the $0$ vector.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        It's not a clearly-worded proof, but the essence is, given a row-reduced matrix with an augmented zero column, we can freely and independently choose values for the variable corresponding to columns without leading $1$s, and the rest of the variables will be determined from this. Try this wording instead:



        Consider a system of linear equations, corresponding to an $n times m$ row-reduced matrix with a $0$ column augmented. Suppose $x_i$ is the $i$th variable of the system, corresponding to row $i$ in the matrix, for $i = 1, ldots, m$. Let $k$ be such that $k$th column of the matrix is the leftmost column without a leading $1$.



        We define a non-zero solution as follows: let $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$. Let $x_k = 1$. Note that the first $k - 1$ rows of the matrix have leading $1$s in the first, second third, ..., $(k - 1)$th columns, as the $k$th is the leftmost column without a leading $1$. The $(k - 1)$th row must correspond to an equation of the form
        $$x_k - 1 + alpha_k x_k + alpha_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + alpha_m x_m = 0.$$
        But, $x_k+1 = x_k + 2 = ldots = x_m = 0$ according to our construction, and $x_k = 1$, so we set $x_k - 1 = -alpha_k$.



        Then, the $(k - 2)$th row is of the form
        $$x_k - 2 + beta_k - 1 x_k - 1 + beta_k x_k + beta_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + beta_m x_m = 0,$$
        and so we set $x_k-2 = beta_k-1 alpha_k - beta_k$.



        The actual value is unimportant; the important thing is that we can always set a value for every $x_i$ with $1 le i < k$, in such a way that every equation corresponding to a row above the $k$th row is satisfied.



        The rows below the $k$th row are easy; they'll be satisfied with $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$.



        The point is, we have a solution where $x_k = 1$, which is a distinct solution from the trivial solution. In other words, the vectors $v_1, ldots, v_m$ are linearly dependent, as there are non-trivial linear combinations of these vectors that produce the $0$ vector.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          It's not a clearly-worded proof, but the essence is, given a row-reduced matrix with an augmented zero column, we can freely and independently choose values for the variable corresponding to columns without leading $1$s, and the rest of the variables will be determined from this. Try this wording instead:



          Consider a system of linear equations, corresponding to an $n times m$ row-reduced matrix with a $0$ column augmented. Suppose $x_i$ is the $i$th variable of the system, corresponding to row $i$ in the matrix, for $i = 1, ldots, m$. Let $k$ be such that $k$th column of the matrix is the leftmost column without a leading $1$.



          We define a non-zero solution as follows: let $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$. Let $x_k = 1$. Note that the first $k - 1$ rows of the matrix have leading $1$s in the first, second third, ..., $(k - 1)$th columns, as the $k$th is the leftmost column without a leading $1$. The $(k - 1)$th row must correspond to an equation of the form
          $$x_k - 1 + alpha_k x_k + alpha_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + alpha_m x_m = 0.$$
          But, $x_k+1 = x_k + 2 = ldots = x_m = 0$ according to our construction, and $x_k = 1$, so we set $x_k - 1 = -alpha_k$.



          Then, the $(k - 2)$th row is of the form
          $$x_k - 2 + beta_k - 1 x_k - 1 + beta_k x_k + beta_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + beta_m x_m = 0,$$
          and so we set $x_k-2 = beta_k-1 alpha_k - beta_k$.



          The actual value is unimportant; the important thing is that we can always set a value for every $x_i$ with $1 le i < k$, in such a way that every equation corresponding to a row above the $k$th row is satisfied.



          The rows below the $k$th row are easy; they'll be satisfied with $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$.



          The point is, we have a solution where $x_k = 1$, which is a distinct solution from the trivial solution. In other words, the vectors $v_1, ldots, v_m$ are linearly dependent, as there are non-trivial linear combinations of these vectors that produce the $0$ vector.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          It's not a clearly-worded proof, but the essence is, given a row-reduced matrix with an augmented zero column, we can freely and independently choose values for the variable corresponding to columns without leading $1$s, and the rest of the variables will be determined from this. Try this wording instead:



          Consider a system of linear equations, corresponding to an $n times m$ row-reduced matrix with a $0$ column augmented. Suppose $x_i$ is the $i$th variable of the system, corresponding to row $i$ in the matrix, for $i = 1, ldots, m$. Let $k$ be such that $k$th column of the matrix is the leftmost column without a leading $1$.



          We define a non-zero solution as follows: let $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$. Let $x_k = 1$. Note that the first $k - 1$ rows of the matrix have leading $1$s in the first, second third, ..., $(k - 1)$th columns, as the $k$th is the leftmost column without a leading $1$. The $(k - 1)$th row must correspond to an equation of the form
          $$x_k - 1 + alpha_k x_k + alpha_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + alpha_m x_m = 0.$$
          But, $x_k+1 = x_k + 2 = ldots = x_m = 0$ according to our construction, and $x_k = 1$, so we set $x_k - 1 = -alpha_k$.



          Then, the $(k - 2)$th row is of the form
          $$x_k - 2 + beta_k - 1 x_k - 1 + beta_k x_k + beta_k + 1 x_k + 1 + ldots + beta_m x_m = 0,$$
          and so we set $x_k-2 = beta_k-1 alpha_k - beta_k$.



          The actual value is unimportant; the important thing is that we can always set a value for every $x_i$ with $1 le i < k$, in such a way that every equation corresponding to a row above the $k$th row is satisfied.



          The rows below the $k$th row are easy; they'll be satisfied with $x_i = 0$ for $i > k$.



          The point is, we have a solution where $x_k = 1$, which is a distinct solution from the trivial solution. In other words, the vectors $v_1, ldots, v_m$ are linearly dependent, as there are non-trivial linear combinations of these vectors that produce the $0$ vector.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Apr 1 at 1:15









          Theo BenditTheo Bendit

          21k12355




          21k12355





















              0












              $begingroup$

              OK, so I've came to a conclusion.



              So let $x_i$ be any value for the ith zero column and then solve for the nonzero columns.



              Let $j$ denote the non-zero columns obviously $x_j=0$ but the fact that there are zero columns allows x to be non-zero thus x is zero if and only if there is a leading 1 in every column.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                OK, so I've came to a conclusion.



                So let $x_i$ be any value for the ith zero column and then solve for the nonzero columns.



                Let $j$ denote the non-zero columns obviously $x_j=0$ but the fact that there are zero columns allows x to be non-zero thus x is zero if and only if there is a leading 1 in every column.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  OK, so I've came to a conclusion.



                  So let $x_i$ be any value for the ith zero column and then solve for the nonzero columns.



                  Let $j$ denote the non-zero columns obviously $x_j=0$ but the fact that there are zero columns allows x to be non-zero thus x is zero if and only if there is a leading 1 in every column.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  OK, so I've came to a conclusion.



                  So let $x_i$ be any value for the ith zero column and then solve for the nonzero columns.



                  Let $j$ denote the non-zero columns obviously $x_j=0$ but the fact that there are zero columns allows x to be non-zero thus x is zero if and only if there is a leading 1 in every column.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Apr 1 at 1:14









                  PolynomialCPolynomialC

                  967




                  967



























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