Is there an explicit relationship between the eigenvalues of a matrix and its derivative? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Recovering a Matrix knowing its eigenvectors and eigenvalueseigenvalue of block matrix in terms of original matrixThe relationship between diagonal entries and eigenvalues of a diagonalizable matrixAntidiagonal block matrix (eigenvalues and eigenvectors)Eigenvalues of block matrix where blocks are relatedGradient of a function involving maximaAre the eigenvalues of the matrix AB equal to the eigenvalues of the matrix BAFinding approximate common eigenvector of two matricesMatrix transformations, Eigenvectors and EigenvaluesAre the following equations concerning matrices and their eigenvectors equivalent?

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Is there an explicit relationship between the eigenvalues of a matrix and its derivative?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Recovering a Matrix knowing its eigenvectors and eigenvalueseigenvalue of block matrix in terms of original matrixThe relationship between diagonal entries and eigenvalues of a diagonalizable matrixAntidiagonal block matrix (eigenvalues and eigenvectors)Eigenvalues of block matrix where blocks are relatedGradient of a function involving maximaAre the eigenvalues of the matrix AB equal to the eigenvalues of the matrix BAFinding approximate common eigenvector of two matricesMatrix transformations, Eigenvectors and EigenvaluesAre the following equations concerning matrices and their eigenvectors equivalent?










10












$begingroup$


If we consider a matrix $A$ dependent of a variable $x$, the eigenvalues and eigenvectors satisfying the equation
$$
A vecv=lambda vecv
$$



will also depend on $x$. If we consider the matrix $B$ such that
$$B_ij=frac mathrmd mathrmd x A_ij$$
Then, could we express the eigenvalues of $B$ in terms of the eigenvalues of $A$?
I found the question very interesting and was not able to find a satisfying answer myself.



For example in the case for $2times2$ matrices of the form
$$
A=left (
beginmatrix
a(x) & b(x) \
0 & c(x)
endmatrix
right ),implies B=left (
beginmatrix
a'(x) & b'(x) \
0 & c'(x)
endmatrix
right )
$$

I noticed that $lambda_B(x)= lambda_A'(x)$. But I cannot generalise it to general $2times 2$ matrices. Not even thinking about $ntimes n$ matrices...



Thank you for your help and any idea!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
    $endgroup$
    – greg
    Jan 27 at 20:51















10












$begingroup$


If we consider a matrix $A$ dependent of a variable $x$, the eigenvalues and eigenvectors satisfying the equation
$$
A vecv=lambda vecv
$$



will also depend on $x$. If we consider the matrix $B$ such that
$$B_ij=frac mathrmd mathrmd x A_ij$$
Then, could we express the eigenvalues of $B$ in terms of the eigenvalues of $A$?
I found the question very interesting and was not able to find a satisfying answer myself.



For example in the case for $2times2$ matrices of the form
$$
A=left (
beginmatrix
a(x) & b(x) \
0 & c(x)
endmatrix
right ),implies B=left (
beginmatrix
a'(x) & b'(x) \
0 & c'(x)
endmatrix
right )
$$

I noticed that $lambda_B(x)= lambda_A'(x)$. But I cannot generalise it to general $2times 2$ matrices. Not even thinking about $ntimes n$ matrices...



Thank you for your help and any idea!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
    $endgroup$
    – greg
    Jan 27 at 20:51













10












10








10


2



$begingroup$


If we consider a matrix $A$ dependent of a variable $x$, the eigenvalues and eigenvectors satisfying the equation
$$
A vecv=lambda vecv
$$



will also depend on $x$. If we consider the matrix $B$ such that
$$B_ij=frac mathrmd mathrmd x A_ij$$
Then, could we express the eigenvalues of $B$ in terms of the eigenvalues of $A$?
I found the question very interesting and was not able to find a satisfying answer myself.



For example in the case for $2times2$ matrices of the form
$$
A=left (
beginmatrix
a(x) & b(x) \
0 & c(x)
endmatrix
right ),implies B=left (
beginmatrix
a'(x) & b'(x) \
0 & c'(x)
endmatrix
right )
$$

I noticed that $lambda_B(x)= lambda_A'(x)$. But I cannot generalise it to general $2times 2$ matrices. Not even thinking about $ntimes n$ matrices...



Thank you for your help and any idea!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




If we consider a matrix $A$ dependent of a variable $x$, the eigenvalues and eigenvectors satisfying the equation
$$
A vecv=lambda vecv
$$



will also depend on $x$. If we consider the matrix $B$ such that
$$B_ij=frac mathrmd mathrmd x A_ij$$
Then, could we express the eigenvalues of $B$ in terms of the eigenvalues of $A$?
I found the question very interesting and was not able to find a satisfying answer myself.



For example in the case for $2times2$ matrices of the form
$$
A=left (
beginmatrix
a(x) & b(x) \
0 & c(x)
endmatrix
right ),implies B=left (
beginmatrix
a'(x) & b'(x) \
0 & c'(x)
endmatrix
right )
$$

I noticed that $lambda_B(x)= lambda_A'(x)$. But I cannot generalise it to general $2times 2$ matrices. Not even thinking about $ntimes n$ matrices...



Thank you for your help and any idea!







linear-algebra matrices derivatives eigenvalues-eigenvectors






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 25 at 19:56









MattMatt

513




513







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
    $endgroup$
    – greg
    Jan 27 at 20:51












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
    $endgroup$
    – greg
    Jan 27 at 20:51







1




1




$begingroup$
One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
$endgroup$
– greg
Jan 27 at 20:51




$begingroup$
One nice property of an upper (or lower) triangular matrix is that its eigenvalues are the same as its diagonal elements; which explains the $2times 2$ examples that you discovered. But this is not a general property of all matrices.
$endgroup$
– greg
Jan 27 at 20:51










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

It is not true in general that the eigenvalues of $B(x)$ are the derivatives of those of $A(x)$. And this even for some square matrices of dimension $2 times 2$.



Consider the matrix



$$A(x) =
beginpmatrix
1& -x^2\
-x &1
endpmatrix$$

It’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_A(x)(t)=t^2-2t+1-x^3$, which has for roots $1pm x ^3/2$ for $x>0$. Those are the eigenvalues of $A(x)$.



The derivative of $A(x)$ is
$$B(x) =
beginpmatrix
0& -2x\
-1 &0
endpmatrix$$
and it’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_B(x)(t)=t^2-2x$, whose roots are $pm sqrt2 x^1/2$for $x>0$.



We get a counterexample as the derivative of $1+x^3/2$ is not $sqrt2x^1/2$.



However in the special case of upper triangular matrices (that you consider in your original question) the eigenvalues of the matrix derivative are indeed the derivatives of the eigenvalues.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    It can be shown that the eigenvalues of the derivative of the matrix cannot be derived from the eigenvalues of the original matrix. Example:
    $$
    A_1 = beginpmatrix -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 endpmatrix
    ;;; , ;;;
    A_2 = beginpmatrix 0 & e^x \ e^-x & 0 endpmatrix
    $$

    Both of the matrices above have the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1.$ However, the derivative of the first matrix has the eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity 2), while the derivative of the second matrix has the eigenvalues $i$ and $-i.$



    Just given the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1$, there is no way of telling which matrix they originate from, hence no way of getting the eigenvalues of the derivative.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      1












      $begingroup$

      Let $alpha_k,beta_k$ be the eigenvalues of $(A,B)$
      where $B(x) = A'(x).$



      A class of matrices for which $beta_k=alpha_k',$ can be constructed as follows.

      Choose an orthogonal matrix $Q$ and an upper triangular matrix $U(x).$
      $$eqalign
      A &= Q,U,Q^-1 cr
      A' &= Q,U'Q^-1 cr
      $$

      Since $Q$ is orthogonal, the eigenvalues of $(U,U')$ equal the eigenvalues of $(A,A')$, respectively.



      Since the eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its diagonal elements,

      the EVs of $U$ are $U_kk=alpha_k,$ and
      the EVs of $U'$ are $U'_kk=alpha_k'=beta_k.$



      NB: $,Q$ must be independent of $x$ for this construction to apply.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$




















        -1












        $begingroup$

        If $A(x)v= lambda(x)v$, with v independent of x, then, differentiating on both sides of the equation by x, $A'(x)v= lambda'(x)v$. That is, the eigenvalues of A' are the derivatives of the eigenvalues of A, with same associated eigenvectors.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$








        • 3




          $begingroup$
          The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
          $endgroup$
          – mathcounterexamples.net
          Jan 25 at 20:49











        Your Answer








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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        1












        $begingroup$

        It is not true in general that the eigenvalues of $B(x)$ are the derivatives of those of $A(x)$. And this even for some square matrices of dimension $2 times 2$.



        Consider the matrix



        $$A(x) =
        beginpmatrix
        1& -x^2\
        -x &1
        endpmatrix$$

        It’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_A(x)(t)=t^2-2t+1-x^3$, which has for roots $1pm x ^3/2$ for $x>0$. Those are the eigenvalues of $A(x)$.



        The derivative of $A(x)$ is
        $$B(x) =
        beginpmatrix
        0& -2x\
        -1 &0
        endpmatrix$$
        and it’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_B(x)(t)=t^2-2x$, whose roots are $pm sqrt2 x^1/2$for $x>0$.



        We get a counterexample as the derivative of $1+x^3/2$ is not $sqrt2x^1/2$.



        However in the special case of upper triangular matrices (that you consider in your original question) the eigenvalues of the matrix derivative are indeed the derivatives of the eigenvalues.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$

















          1












          $begingroup$

          It is not true in general that the eigenvalues of $B(x)$ are the derivatives of those of $A(x)$. And this even for some square matrices of dimension $2 times 2$.



          Consider the matrix



          $$A(x) =
          beginpmatrix
          1& -x^2\
          -x &1
          endpmatrix$$

          It’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_A(x)(t)=t^2-2t+1-x^3$, which has for roots $1pm x ^3/2$ for $x>0$. Those are the eigenvalues of $A(x)$.



          The derivative of $A(x)$ is
          $$B(x) =
          beginpmatrix
          0& -2x\
          -1 &0
          endpmatrix$$
          and it’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_B(x)(t)=t^2-2x$, whose roots are $pm sqrt2 x^1/2$for $x>0$.



          We get a counterexample as the derivative of $1+x^3/2$ is not $sqrt2x^1/2$.



          However in the special case of upper triangular matrices (that you consider in your original question) the eigenvalues of the matrix derivative are indeed the derivatives of the eigenvalues.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            It is not true in general that the eigenvalues of $B(x)$ are the derivatives of those of $A(x)$. And this even for some square matrices of dimension $2 times 2$.



            Consider the matrix



            $$A(x) =
            beginpmatrix
            1& -x^2\
            -x &1
            endpmatrix$$

            It’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_A(x)(t)=t^2-2t+1-x^3$, which has for roots $1pm x ^3/2$ for $x>0$. Those are the eigenvalues of $A(x)$.



            The derivative of $A(x)$ is
            $$B(x) =
            beginpmatrix
            0& -2x\
            -1 &0
            endpmatrix$$
            and it’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_B(x)(t)=t^2-2x$, whose roots are $pm sqrt2 x^1/2$for $x>0$.



            We get a counterexample as the derivative of $1+x^3/2$ is not $sqrt2x^1/2$.



            However in the special case of upper triangular matrices (that you consider in your original question) the eigenvalues of the matrix derivative are indeed the derivatives of the eigenvalues.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            It is not true in general that the eigenvalues of $B(x)$ are the derivatives of those of $A(x)$. And this even for some square matrices of dimension $2 times 2$.



            Consider the matrix



            $$A(x) =
            beginpmatrix
            1& -x^2\
            -x &1
            endpmatrix$$

            It’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_A(x)(t)=t^2-2t+1-x^3$, which has for roots $1pm x ^3/2$ for $x>0$. Those are the eigenvalues of $A(x)$.



            The derivative of $A(x)$ is
            $$B(x) =
            beginpmatrix
            0& -2x\
            -1 &0
            endpmatrix$$
            and it’s characteristic polynomial is $chi_B(x)(t)=t^2-2x$, whose roots are $pm sqrt2 x^1/2$for $x>0$.



            We get a counterexample as the derivative of $1+x^3/2$ is not $sqrt2x^1/2$.



            However in the special case of upper triangular matrices (that you consider in your original question) the eigenvalues of the matrix derivative are indeed the derivatives of the eigenvalues.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 25 at 21:29

























            answered Jan 25 at 20:48









            mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net

            26.9k22158




            26.9k22158





















                1












                $begingroup$

                It can be shown that the eigenvalues of the derivative of the matrix cannot be derived from the eigenvalues of the original matrix. Example:
                $$
                A_1 = beginpmatrix -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 endpmatrix
                ;;; , ;;;
                A_2 = beginpmatrix 0 & e^x \ e^-x & 0 endpmatrix
                $$

                Both of the matrices above have the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1.$ However, the derivative of the first matrix has the eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity 2), while the derivative of the second matrix has the eigenvalues $i$ and $-i.$



                Just given the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1$, there is no way of telling which matrix they originate from, hence no way of getting the eigenvalues of the derivative.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  It can be shown that the eigenvalues of the derivative of the matrix cannot be derived from the eigenvalues of the original matrix. Example:
                  $$
                  A_1 = beginpmatrix -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 endpmatrix
                  ;;; , ;;;
                  A_2 = beginpmatrix 0 & e^x \ e^-x & 0 endpmatrix
                  $$

                  Both of the matrices above have the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1.$ However, the derivative of the first matrix has the eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity 2), while the derivative of the second matrix has the eigenvalues $i$ and $-i.$



                  Just given the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1$, there is no way of telling which matrix they originate from, hence no way of getting the eigenvalues of the derivative.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    It can be shown that the eigenvalues of the derivative of the matrix cannot be derived from the eigenvalues of the original matrix. Example:
                    $$
                    A_1 = beginpmatrix -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 endpmatrix
                    ;;; , ;;;
                    A_2 = beginpmatrix 0 & e^x \ e^-x & 0 endpmatrix
                    $$

                    Both of the matrices above have the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1.$ However, the derivative of the first matrix has the eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity 2), while the derivative of the second matrix has the eigenvalues $i$ and $-i.$



                    Just given the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1$, there is no way of telling which matrix they originate from, hence no way of getting the eigenvalues of the derivative.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    It can be shown that the eigenvalues of the derivative of the matrix cannot be derived from the eigenvalues of the original matrix. Example:
                    $$
                    A_1 = beginpmatrix -1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 endpmatrix
                    ;;; , ;;;
                    A_2 = beginpmatrix 0 & e^x \ e^-x & 0 endpmatrix
                    $$

                    Both of the matrices above have the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1.$ However, the derivative of the first matrix has the eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity 2), while the derivative of the second matrix has the eigenvalues $i$ and $-i.$



                    Just given the eigenvalues $-1$ and $1$, there is no way of telling which matrix they originate from, hence no way of getting the eigenvalues of the derivative.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 26 at 14:00









                    Reinhard MeierReinhard Meier

                    3,022310




                    3,022310





















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Let $alpha_k,beta_k$ be the eigenvalues of $(A,B)$
                        where $B(x) = A'(x).$



                        A class of matrices for which $beta_k=alpha_k',$ can be constructed as follows.

                        Choose an orthogonal matrix $Q$ and an upper triangular matrix $U(x).$
                        $$eqalign
                        A &= Q,U,Q^-1 cr
                        A' &= Q,U'Q^-1 cr
                        $$

                        Since $Q$ is orthogonal, the eigenvalues of $(U,U')$ equal the eigenvalues of $(A,A')$, respectively.



                        Since the eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its diagonal elements,

                        the EVs of $U$ are $U_kk=alpha_k,$ and
                        the EVs of $U'$ are $U'_kk=alpha_k'=beta_k.$



                        NB: $,Q$ must be independent of $x$ for this construction to apply.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Let $alpha_k,beta_k$ be the eigenvalues of $(A,B)$
                          where $B(x) = A'(x).$



                          A class of matrices for which $beta_k=alpha_k',$ can be constructed as follows.

                          Choose an orthogonal matrix $Q$ and an upper triangular matrix $U(x).$
                          $$eqalign
                          A &= Q,U,Q^-1 cr
                          A' &= Q,U'Q^-1 cr
                          $$

                          Since $Q$ is orthogonal, the eigenvalues of $(U,U')$ equal the eigenvalues of $(A,A')$, respectively.



                          Since the eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its diagonal elements,

                          the EVs of $U$ are $U_kk=alpha_k,$ and
                          the EVs of $U'$ are $U'_kk=alpha_k'=beta_k.$



                          NB: $,Q$ must be independent of $x$ for this construction to apply.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            Let $alpha_k,beta_k$ be the eigenvalues of $(A,B)$
                            where $B(x) = A'(x).$



                            A class of matrices for which $beta_k=alpha_k',$ can be constructed as follows.

                            Choose an orthogonal matrix $Q$ and an upper triangular matrix $U(x).$
                            $$eqalign
                            A &= Q,U,Q^-1 cr
                            A' &= Q,U'Q^-1 cr
                            $$

                            Since $Q$ is orthogonal, the eigenvalues of $(U,U')$ equal the eigenvalues of $(A,A')$, respectively.



                            Since the eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its diagonal elements,

                            the EVs of $U$ are $U_kk=alpha_k,$ and
                            the EVs of $U'$ are $U'_kk=alpha_k'=beta_k.$



                            NB: $,Q$ must be independent of $x$ for this construction to apply.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Let $alpha_k,beta_k$ be the eigenvalues of $(A,B)$
                            where $B(x) = A'(x).$



                            A class of matrices for which $beta_k=alpha_k',$ can be constructed as follows.

                            Choose an orthogonal matrix $Q$ and an upper triangular matrix $U(x).$
                            $$eqalign
                            A &= Q,U,Q^-1 cr
                            A' &= Q,U'Q^-1 cr
                            $$

                            Since $Q$ is orthogonal, the eigenvalues of $(U,U')$ equal the eigenvalues of $(A,A')$, respectively.



                            Since the eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its diagonal elements,

                            the EVs of $U$ are $U_kk=alpha_k,$ and
                            the EVs of $U'$ are $U'_kk=alpha_k'=beta_k.$



                            NB: $,Q$ must be independent of $x$ for this construction to apply.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Mar 31 at 20:47

























                            answered Jan 30 at 18:56









                            greggreg

                            9,3361825




                            9,3361825





















                                -1












                                $begingroup$

                                If $A(x)v= lambda(x)v$, with v independent of x, then, differentiating on both sides of the equation by x, $A'(x)v= lambda'(x)v$. That is, the eigenvalues of A' are the derivatives of the eigenvalues of A, with same associated eigenvectors.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$








                                • 3




                                  $begingroup$
                                  The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – mathcounterexamples.net
                                  Jan 25 at 20:49















                                -1












                                $begingroup$

                                If $A(x)v= lambda(x)v$, with v independent of x, then, differentiating on both sides of the equation by x, $A'(x)v= lambda'(x)v$. That is, the eigenvalues of A' are the derivatives of the eigenvalues of A, with same associated eigenvectors.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$








                                • 3




                                  $begingroup$
                                  The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – mathcounterexamples.net
                                  Jan 25 at 20:49













                                -1












                                -1








                                -1





                                $begingroup$

                                If $A(x)v= lambda(x)v$, with v independent of x, then, differentiating on both sides of the equation by x, $A'(x)v= lambda'(x)v$. That is, the eigenvalues of A' are the derivatives of the eigenvalues of A, with same associated eigenvectors.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$



                                If $A(x)v= lambda(x)v$, with v independent of x, then, differentiating on both sides of the equation by x, $A'(x)v= lambda'(x)v$. That is, the eigenvalues of A' are the derivatives of the eigenvalues of A, with same associated eigenvectors.







                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                answered Jan 25 at 20:03









                                user247327user247327

                                11.6k1516




                                11.6k1516







                                • 3




                                  $begingroup$
                                  The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – mathcounterexamples.net
                                  Jan 25 at 20:49












                                • 3




                                  $begingroup$
                                  The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – mathcounterexamples.net
                                  Jan 25 at 20:49







                                3




                                3




                                $begingroup$
                                The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                $endgroup$
                                – mathcounterexamples.net
                                Jan 25 at 20:49




                                $begingroup$
                                The bias with what you say is that in general, the eigenvector depends on $x$.
                                $endgroup$
                                – mathcounterexamples.net
                                Jan 25 at 20:49

















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