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Do the $|$ around $|langle u,vrangle|$ refer to absolute value in the inner product version of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality?


Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality proof (for semi-inner-product A-module).Inequality involving inner product. $|langle u,vrangle+overlinelangle u,vrangle|le 2|langle u,vrangle|$Why $langle y,xrangle+langle x,yrangle=2mathrmRelangle x,yrangle$? And the rules of using absolute value, inner production and norm?Why is there an “absolute value” and a norm in the Schwarz Inequality?An inner product inequalityCauchy Schwarz inequality and absolute valueCauchy-Schwarz Inequality without using $langle a x,yrangle=alangle x,yrangle$Proof of Cauchy Schwarz InequalityQuestion regarding norms of Cauchy-Schwarz inequalityInequality involving inner product and norm













0












$begingroup$


The full inequality is:
$|langle u,vrangle| leq ||u|| ||v||$



I understand that $||$ around the vectors $u$ and $v$ signifies the taking of their norm, but what do the single | around $langle u,vrangle$ mean?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it's absolute value.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Mar 29 at 16:44







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
    $endgroup$
    – Brian
    Mar 29 at 16:51
















0












$begingroup$


The full inequality is:
$|langle u,vrangle| leq ||u|| ||v||$



I understand that $||$ around the vectors $u$ and $v$ signifies the taking of their norm, but what do the single | around $langle u,vrangle$ mean?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it's absolute value.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Mar 29 at 16:44







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
    $endgroup$
    – Brian
    Mar 29 at 16:51














0












0








0





$begingroup$


The full inequality is:
$|langle u,vrangle| leq ||u|| ||v||$



I understand that $||$ around the vectors $u$ and $v$ signifies the taking of their norm, but what do the single | around $langle u,vrangle$ mean?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




The full inequality is:
$|langle u,vrangle| leq ||u|| ||v||$



I understand that $||$ around the vectors $u$ and $v$ signifies the taking of their norm, but what do the single | around $langle u,vrangle$ mean?







linear-algebra inner-product-space absolute-value convention






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 29 at 16:43









James RonaldJames Ronald

3068




3068







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it's absolute value.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Mar 29 at 16:44







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
    $endgroup$
    – Brian
    Mar 29 at 16:51













  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it's absolute value.
    $endgroup$
    – avs
    Mar 29 at 16:44







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
    $endgroup$
    – Brian
    Mar 29 at 16:51








3




3




$begingroup$
Yes, it's absolute value.
$endgroup$
– avs
Mar 29 at 16:44





$begingroup$
Yes, it's absolute value.
$endgroup$
– avs
Mar 29 at 16:44





1




1




$begingroup$
Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
$endgroup$
– Brian
Mar 29 at 16:51





$begingroup$
Note that in LaTeX, $|a|$ (| a |) should be used over $||a||$ (|| a ||) when typesetting vector norms. Compare the readability of $| v | |u | $ vs. $||u||||v||$.
$endgroup$
– Brian
Mar 29 at 16:51











2 Answers
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0












$begingroup$

Yes, it is absolute value. Note that $langle u, v rangle$ is a scalar. In a real vector space, this is a real number, and you are taking its absolute value in the usual way. In a complex vector space, it's a complex number, and you are taking its complex modulus.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    Yes, they refer to the absolute value. Since $u$ and $v$ are elements of an inner product space, they require a specific norm. However, $langle u,v rangle$ is either a real or complex number, so we use the Euclidean norm.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






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      oldest

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      active

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      active

      oldest

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      0












      $begingroup$

      Yes, it is absolute value. Note that $langle u, v rangle$ is a scalar. In a real vector space, this is a real number, and you are taking its absolute value in the usual way. In a complex vector space, it's a complex number, and you are taking its complex modulus.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        0












        $begingroup$

        Yes, it is absolute value. Note that $langle u, v rangle$ is a scalar. In a real vector space, this is a real number, and you are taking its absolute value in the usual way. In a complex vector space, it's a complex number, and you are taking its complex modulus.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Yes, it is absolute value. Note that $langle u, v rangle$ is a scalar. In a real vector space, this is a real number, and you are taking its absolute value in the usual way. In a complex vector space, it's a complex number, and you are taking its complex modulus.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Yes, it is absolute value. Note that $langle u, v rangle$ is a scalar. In a real vector space, this is a real number, and you are taking its absolute value in the usual way. In a complex vector space, it's a complex number, and you are taking its complex modulus.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 29 at 16:54









          Nate EldredgeNate Eldredge

          64.5k682174




          64.5k682174





















              0












              $begingroup$

              Yes, they refer to the absolute value. Since $u$ and $v$ are elements of an inner product space, they require a specific norm. However, $langle u,v rangle$ is either a real or complex number, so we use the Euclidean norm.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                Yes, they refer to the absolute value. Since $u$ and $v$ are elements of an inner product space, they require a specific norm. However, $langle u,v rangle$ is either a real or complex number, so we use the Euclidean norm.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Yes, they refer to the absolute value. Since $u$ and $v$ are elements of an inner product space, they require a specific norm. However, $langle u,v rangle$ is either a real or complex number, so we use the Euclidean norm.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Yes, they refer to the absolute value. Since $u$ and $v$ are elements of an inner product space, they require a specific norm. However, $langle u,v rangle$ is either a real or complex number, so we use the Euclidean norm.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 29 at 16:58









                  SebSeb

                  114




                  114



























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