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Is regular birational image of affine subset affine?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Integral extension of local rings of projective varietiesBirational equivalence between projective varieties is an equivalence relationthe definition of “Birational Equivalence”Precomposing a rational function $f$ with a birational isomorphism $g$ to make $fcirc g$ regular?Surjective regular morphism from affine space to punctured planeIs every complex affine/projective variety isomorphic/birational to one defined by an ideal $Isubset mathbbZ[x_1,dots,x_n]$?Birational affine schemesBirational $mathbbP^1$-bundlesEquivalent definition of regular map between quasi-projective varieties.what is the difference between isomorphic and birational?Is every affine variety birational to affine space?










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Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φcolon X to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?



This is related to my previous question.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φcolon X to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?



    This is related to my previous question.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φcolon X to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?



      This is related to my previous question.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φcolon X to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?



      This is related to my previous question.







      algebraic-geometry affine-varieties






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Apr 2 at 8:06









      HumanHuman

      303110




      303110




















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          $begingroup$

          No.



          The simplest example is where $varphi: X rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U cong mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V cong mathbf A^2$ such that the map $varphi: U rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) mapsto (x,xy)$. So $varphi(U) subset V cong mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $x neq 0$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.






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            $begingroup$

            No.



            The simplest example is where $varphi: X rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U cong mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V cong mathbf A^2$ such that the map $varphi: U rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) mapsto (x,xy)$. So $varphi(U) subset V cong mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $x neq 0$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              1












              $begingroup$

              No.



              The simplest example is where $varphi: X rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U cong mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V cong mathbf A^2$ such that the map $varphi: U rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) mapsto (x,xy)$. So $varphi(U) subset V cong mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $x neq 0$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                No.



                The simplest example is where $varphi: X rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U cong mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V cong mathbf A^2$ such that the map $varphi: U rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) mapsto (x,xy)$. So $varphi(U) subset V cong mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $x neq 0$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                No.



                The simplest example is where $varphi: X rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U cong mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V cong mathbf A^2$ such that the map $varphi: U rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) mapsto (x,xy)$. So $varphi(U) subset V cong mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $x neq 0$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 2 at 10:32









                Asal Beag DubhAsal Beag Dubh

                68515




                68515



























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