Quadratic forms over $F_p$ in more than $2$ variables are isotropic Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)What is the definition of a non-degenerate homogeneous quadratic form over a finite field?Equivalent conditions on quadratic forms over a fieldDetermining two binary quadratic forms induced by binary nondegenerate symplectic form.Why are quadratic forms that satisfy these conditions isotropic?Why is a finite field finite dimensional over $mathbb F_p$?What does nondegenerate means for quadratic forms?Existence of an isotropic vector orthogonal to a given one in a vector space over a finite field.Quadratic forms with common real zerosMore questions on quadratic forms over fieldUnderstanding Witt's Theorem
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Quadratic forms over $F_p$ in more than $2$ variables are isotropic
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)What is the definition of a non-degenerate homogeneous quadratic form over a finite field?Equivalent conditions on quadratic forms over a fieldDetermining two binary quadratic forms induced by binary nondegenerate symplectic form.Why are quadratic forms that satisfy these conditions isotropic?Why is a finite field finite dimensional over $mathbb F_p$?What does nondegenerate means for quadratic forms?Existence of an isotropic vector orthogonal to a given one in a vector space over a finite field.Quadratic forms with common real zerosMore questions on quadratic forms over fieldUnderstanding Witt's Theorem
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I'm trying to find all anisotropic quadratic forms over $F_p=Z/pZ$. I have found that "If $F$ is a finite field and $(V, q)$ is a quadratic space of dimension at least three, then it is isotropic" (here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotropic_quadratic_form). So I wonder if the fact is true and if it is, why. Thank you
geometry finite-fields quadratic-forms
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add a comment |
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I'm trying to find all anisotropic quadratic forms over $F_p=Z/pZ$. I have found that "If $F$ is a finite field and $(V, q)$ is a quadratic space of dimension at least three, then it is isotropic" (here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotropic_quadratic_form). So I wonder if the fact is true and if it is, why. Thank you
geometry finite-fields quadratic-forms
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Are you assuming $p$ odd?
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– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
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p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
2
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to find all anisotropic quadratic forms over $F_p=Z/pZ$. I have found that "If $F$ is a finite field and $(V, q)$ is a quadratic space of dimension at least three, then it is isotropic" (here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotropic_quadratic_form). So I wonder if the fact is true and if it is, why. Thank you
geometry finite-fields quadratic-forms
$endgroup$
I'm trying to find all anisotropic quadratic forms over $F_p=Z/pZ$. I have found that "If $F$ is a finite field and $(V, q)$ is a quadratic space of dimension at least three, then it is isotropic" (here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotropic_quadratic_form). So I wonder if the fact is true and if it is, why. Thank you
geometry finite-fields quadratic-forms
geometry finite-fields quadratic-forms
edited Apr 2 at 12:22
Jose Brox
3,45711129
3,45711129
asked Apr 2 at 10:41
user653342
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ odd?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
$begingroup$
p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
2
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ odd?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
$begingroup$
p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
2
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ odd?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ odd?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
$begingroup$
p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
2
2
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
First, an observation: if the number of variables of $q$ is less than the dimension, then we can get an isotropic vector by assigning $0$ to the appearing variables and $1$ to the non appearing ones. So we now assume the number of variables $n$ to be the dimension.
Then your result is an specific instance of the Chevalley-Warning theorem: If a set of polynomials $f_i$ over a finite field satisfies $n>sum_i d_i$, where $n$ is the number of variables and $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$, then the system of equations $f_i=0$ has a number of solutions which is a multiple of the characteristic of the finite field.
In your case, you have just one polynomial $q$ of degree $2$ and $ngeq 3>2$, so the number of solutions is a multiple of $p$, hence can be $0,p,2pldots$. But we already know that $(0,ldots,0)$ is a solution, so there must be at least other $p-1$ nonzero solutions $v$ which give $q(v)=0$.
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1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
First, an observation: if the number of variables of $q$ is less than the dimension, then we can get an isotropic vector by assigning $0$ to the appearing variables and $1$ to the non appearing ones. So we now assume the number of variables $n$ to be the dimension.
Then your result is an specific instance of the Chevalley-Warning theorem: If a set of polynomials $f_i$ over a finite field satisfies $n>sum_i d_i$, where $n$ is the number of variables and $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$, then the system of equations $f_i=0$ has a number of solutions which is a multiple of the characteristic of the finite field.
In your case, you have just one polynomial $q$ of degree $2$ and $ngeq 3>2$, so the number of solutions is a multiple of $p$, hence can be $0,p,2pldots$. But we already know that $(0,ldots,0)$ is a solution, so there must be at least other $p-1$ nonzero solutions $v$ which give $q(v)=0$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First, an observation: if the number of variables of $q$ is less than the dimension, then we can get an isotropic vector by assigning $0$ to the appearing variables and $1$ to the non appearing ones. So we now assume the number of variables $n$ to be the dimension.
Then your result is an specific instance of the Chevalley-Warning theorem: If a set of polynomials $f_i$ over a finite field satisfies $n>sum_i d_i$, where $n$ is the number of variables and $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$, then the system of equations $f_i=0$ has a number of solutions which is a multiple of the characteristic of the finite field.
In your case, you have just one polynomial $q$ of degree $2$ and $ngeq 3>2$, so the number of solutions is a multiple of $p$, hence can be $0,p,2pldots$. But we already know that $(0,ldots,0)$ is a solution, so there must be at least other $p-1$ nonzero solutions $v$ which give $q(v)=0$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First, an observation: if the number of variables of $q$ is less than the dimension, then we can get an isotropic vector by assigning $0$ to the appearing variables and $1$ to the non appearing ones. So we now assume the number of variables $n$ to be the dimension.
Then your result is an specific instance of the Chevalley-Warning theorem: If a set of polynomials $f_i$ over a finite field satisfies $n>sum_i d_i$, where $n$ is the number of variables and $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$, then the system of equations $f_i=0$ has a number of solutions which is a multiple of the characteristic of the finite field.
In your case, you have just one polynomial $q$ of degree $2$ and $ngeq 3>2$, so the number of solutions is a multiple of $p$, hence can be $0,p,2pldots$. But we already know that $(0,ldots,0)$ is a solution, so there must be at least other $p-1$ nonzero solutions $v$ which give $q(v)=0$.
$endgroup$
First, an observation: if the number of variables of $q$ is less than the dimension, then we can get an isotropic vector by assigning $0$ to the appearing variables and $1$ to the non appearing ones. So we now assume the number of variables $n$ to be the dimension.
Then your result is an specific instance of the Chevalley-Warning theorem: If a set of polynomials $f_i$ over a finite field satisfies $n>sum_i d_i$, where $n$ is the number of variables and $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$, then the system of equations $f_i=0$ has a number of solutions which is a multiple of the characteristic of the finite field.
In your case, you have just one polynomial $q$ of degree $2$ and $ngeq 3>2$, so the number of solutions is a multiple of $p$, hence can be $0,p,2pldots$. But we already know that $(0,ldots,0)$ is a solution, so there must be at least other $p-1$ nonzero solutions $v$ which give $q(v)=0$.
answered Apr 2 at 12:17
Jose BroxJose Brox
3,45711129
3,45711129
1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
1
1
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Kelly I'm going to add a link in the Wikipedia page to the Chevalley-Warning theorem. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Jose Brox
Apr 2 at 12:23
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ odd?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:50
$begingroup$
p is a prime number
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 10:55
$begingroup$
Are you assuming $p$ is an odd prime number?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 2 at 10:58
2
$begingroup$
$p$ is an arbitrary prime number (except 2)
$endgroup$
– user653342
Apr 2 at 11:01