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Were there any results that were true in old axioms, but are false in modern axioms, and are not obvious paradoxes?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Results that were widely believed to be false but were later shown to be trueAre there papers or books that explain why Bernhard Riemann believed that his hypothesis is true?Can proof by contradiction 'fail'?What kind of mathematical “discoveries” have enabled mankind to build modern computers?Is it possible to construct a formal system such that all interesting statements from ZFC can be proven within the system?Language of an Axiomatic System in the Incompleteness TheoremAre there any new axioms being developed?Reference request: where is it written explicitly that the paradoxes of the early 20th century were overcame in the current mathematics?On independency of ZFC of statements in math problem solvingHilbert Program: Consistency vs Soundness










1












$begingroup$


Recently I learned that it can't be proved that mathematical axioms are consistent. And furthermore, in 1900s math was based on an inconsistent system of axioms.



So, are there any results, that were true in old axioms, were believed to be true (so obvious paradoxes don't count), but are false in modern axioms?



If there are some, then does it mean I can be skeptical about any proved statements, just because we can never be sure that our axioms are consistent?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Where did you learn that?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Apr 2 at 9:13











  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
    $endgroup$
    – Arqwer
    Apr 2 at 9:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:37















1












$begingroup$


Recently I learned that it can't be proved that mathematical axioms are consistent. And furthermore, in 1900s math was based on an inconsistent system of axioms.



So, are there any results, that were true in old axioms, were believed to be true (so obvious paradoxes don't count), but are false in modern axioms?



If there are some, then does it mean I can be skeptical about any proved statements, just because we can never be sure that our axioms are consistent?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Where did you learn that?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Apr 2 at 9:13











  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
    $endgroup$
    – Arqwer
    Apr 2 at 9:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:37













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Recently I learned that it can't be proved that mathematical axioms are consistent. And furthermore, in 1900s math was based on an inconsistent system of axioms.



So, are there any results, that were true in old axioms, were believed to be true (so obvious paradoxes don't count), but are false in modern axioms?



If there are some, then does it mean I can be skeptical about any proved statements, just because we can never be sure that our axioms are consistent?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Recently I learned that it can't be proved that mathematical axioms are consistent. And furthermore, in 1900s math was based on an inconsistent system of axioms.



So, are there any results, that were true in old axioms, were believed to be true (so obvious paradoxes don't count), but are false in modern axioms?



If there are some, then does it mean I can be skeptical about any proved statements, just because we can never be sure that our axioms are consistent?







math-history axioms






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Apr 2 at 9:07









ArqwerArqwer

61




61







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Where did you learn that?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Apr 2 at 9:13











  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
    $endgroup$
    – Arqwer
    Apr 2 at 9:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:37












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Where did you learn that?
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Apr 2 at 9:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Apr 2 at 9:13











  • $begingroup$
    @JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
    $endgroup$
    – Arqwer
    Apr 2 at 9:16






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 2 at 9:37







3




3




$begingroup$
Where did you learn that?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Apr 2 at 9:10




$begingroup$
Where did you learn that?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Apr 2 at 9:10




1




1




$begingroup$
The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Apr 2 at 9:10




$begingroup$
The goal of the modern axiom systems was to get a solid footing under the math that we had already done. Which is to say, the axioms were constructed with the explicit goal of changing as few results as possible. I'm not saying there aren't any, but I think you will have to look hard to find them.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Apr 2 at 9:10




1




1




$begingroup$
One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Apr 2 at 9:13





$begingroup$
One particular bit of mathematics, namely set theory, was based on assumptions that we now know to be inconsistent from its beginning in the late 1800s until about the first decade of the 1900s. But that does not infect all of the rest of mathematics, which was at that time done in the same way it had always been, without considering it to be applications of set theory, like some modern descriptions are wont to.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Apr 2 at 9:13













$begingroup$
@JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
$endgroup$
– Arqwer
Apr 2 at 9:16




$begingroup$
@JoséCarlosSantos AFAIK Russel's paradox lead to creation of ZFC, because it has shown inconsistency of axioms that were before ZFC
$endgroup$
– Arqwer
Apr 2 at 9:16




1




1




$begingroup$
There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Apr 2 at 9:37




$begingroup$
There were no set theory axioms before ZFC.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Apr 2 at 9:37










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