An entrance exam problem relating to sequences and limits Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Radius of convergence of power series or geometric seriesdecay rate of series involving the confluent hypergeometric functionProof regarding limits of functions and sequencesA limit question (JEE $2014$)Sequences and limitsLimits of sequences and seriesConvergence and limits of recusive sequences.Partial fraction decomposition: $f(x) = fracx1-x-x^2$Holomorphic function convergent sequence , proof identically zeroProblem on limits of sequences
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An entrance exam problem relating to sequences and limits
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Radius of convergence of power series or geometric seriesdecay rate of series involving the confluent hypergeometric functionProof regarding limits of functions and sequencesA limit question (JEE $2014$)Sequences and limitsLimits of sequences and seriesConvergence and limits of recusive sequences.Partial fraction decomposition: $f(x) = fracx1-x-x^2$Holomorphic function convergent sequence , proof identically zeroProblem on limits of sequences
$begingroup$
this is a problem from the entrance exam of the University of Tokyo and unfortunately, the official doesn't offer solutions.
1) Using mathematical induction. Assume $f_n(x)=c_n x^a_n$ holds for $n$, and by $f_n+1(x)=p int_0^xleft(f_n(t)right)^1 / q mathrmd t$ we can get $f_n+1(x)$. Then comparing the coeffient and the exponent will show that it holds for $n+1$ too.
2) 3) 4) 5) 6) I've no idea. I tried to calc the derivatives of $g_n$, but I don't know what to do next.
I can get $a_n+1$ from the recursive formula, but the form of it is kinda complex which makes it hard to get $c_n+1$. So I guess the rest questions could be done without knowing what actually $a_n$ and $c_n$ are. But I don't know how to do that.
Also, $1 / p+1 / q=1$ seems a frequent condition, how is it usually used in solutions?
sequences-and-series limits analysis
$endgroup$
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
this is a problem from the entrance exam of the University of Tokyo and unfortunately, the official doesn't offer solutions.
1) Using mathematical induction. Assume $f_n(x)=c_n x^a_n$ holds for $n$, and by $f_n+1(x)=p int_0^xleft(f_n(t)right)^1 / q mathrmd t$ we can get $f_n+1(x)$. Then comparing the coeffient and the exponent will show that it holds for $n+1$ too.
2) 3) 4) 5) 6) I've no idea. I tried to calc the derivatives of $g_n$, but I don't know what to do next.
I can get $a_n+1$ from the recursive formula, but the form of it is kinda complex which makes it hard to get $c_n+1$. So I guess the rest questions could be done without knowing what actually $a_n$ and $c_n$ are. But I don't know how to do that.
Also, $1 / p+1 / q=1$ seems a frequent condition, how is it usually used in solutions?
sequences-and-series limits analysis
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
1
$begingroup$
I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
$begingroup$
Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
this is a problem from the entrance exam of the University of Tokyo and unfortunately, the official doesn't offer solutions.
1) Using mathematical induction. Assume $f_n(x)=c_n x^a_n$ holds for $n$, and by $f_n+1(x)=p int_0^xleft(f_n(t)right)^1 / q mathrmd t$ we can get $f_n+1(x)$. Then comparing the coeffient and the exponent will show that it holds for $n+1$ too.
2) 3) 4) 5) 6) I've no idea. I tried to calc the derivatives of $g_n$, but I don't know what to do next.
I can get $a_n+1$ from the recursive formula, but the form of it is kinda complex which makes it hard to get $c_n+1$. So I guess the rest questions could be done without knowing what actually $a_n$ and $c_n$ are. But I don't know how to do that.
Also, $1 / p+1 / q=1$ seems a frequent condition, how is it usually used in solutions?
sequences-and-series limits analysis
$endgroup$
this is a problem from the entrance exam of the University of Tokyo and unfortunately, the official doesn't offer solutions.
1) Using mathematical induction. Assume $f_n(x)=c_n x^a_n$ holds for $n$, and by $f_n+1(x)=p int_0^xleft(f_n(t)right)^1 / q mathrmd t$ we can get $f_n+1(x)$. Then comparing the coeffient and the exponent will show that it holds for $n+1$ too.
2) 3) 4) 5) 6) I've no idea. I tried to calc the derivatives of $g_n$, but I don't know what to do next.
I can get $a_n+1$ from the recursive formula, but the form of it is kinda complex which makes it hard to get $c_n+1$. So I guess the rest questions could be done without knowing what actually $a_n$ and $c_n$ are. But I don't know how to do that.
Also, $1 / p+1 / q=1$ seems a frequent condition, how is it usually used in solutions?
sequences-and-series limits analysis
sequences-and-series limits analysis
asked Apr 2 at 9:50
ShuumatsuShuumatsu
637
637
1
$begingroup$
$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
1
$begingroup$
I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
$begingroup$
Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27
|
show 4 more comments
1
$begingroup$
$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
1
$begingroup$
I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
$begingroup$
Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27
1
1
$begingroup$
$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
$begingroup$
$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
1
1
$begingroup$
I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
$begingroup$
I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
$begingroup$
@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
$begingroup$
Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27
$begingroup$
Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
$endgroup$
– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27
|
show 4 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
To get you started, the main notion to know to handle the first two questions is that of an arithmetico-geometric sequence (in the French context which differs from the English one).
Then, you will easily notice how $a_n$ is an arithmetico-geometric sequence.
That gives you both:
an explicit formula for $a_n = frac1-q^-n+11-q^-1=sum_k=0^n-2q^-k = p(1-q^-n+1)$
its limit $lim_nto infty a_n=frac11-q^-1=p$
For 2):
$$
g'_n(x_n)=a_nx_n^a_n-1-px_n^p-1=0 Leftrightarrow x_n=left( fraca_np right)^frac1p-a_n
$$
which holds because $lim_nto infty a_n=p$ and $(a_n)_ngeq 0$ is increasing so $p-a_n> 0$ thus $x_n$ exists and is unique.
It is a maximum because of the sign of the difference of $xmapsto a_nx^a_n-1$ and $xmapsto px_n^p-1$ (try to get this result by yourself).
For 3):
Since $ymapsto x^y=e^yln x$ is continuous over $mathbbR$ whatever $xin mathbbR^+*$, $lim_nto inftyx^a_n=x^lim_nto inftya_n=x^p$. Thus, $lim_nto inftyg_n(x)=0$ for $xin ( 0,1 ]$. For $x=0$, the result is trivial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
|
show 2 more comments
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
To get you started, the main notion to know to handle the first two questions is that of an arithmetico-geometric sequence (in the French context which differs from the English one).
Then, you will easily notice how $a_n$ is an arithmetico-geometric sequence.
That gives you both:
an explicit formula for $a_n = frac1-q^-n+11-q^-1=sum_k=0^n-2q^-k = p(1-q^-n+1)$
its limit $lim_nto infty a_n=frac11-q^-1=p$
For 2):
$$
g'_n(x_n)=a_nx_n^a_n-1-px_n^p-1=0 Leftrightarrow x_n=left( fraca_np right)^frac1p-a_n
$$
which holds because $lim_nto infty a_n=p$ and $(a_n)_ngeq 0$ is increasing so $p-a_n> 0$ thus $x_n$ exists and is unique.
It is a maximum because of the sign of the difference of $xmapsto a_nx^a_n-1$ and $xmapsto px_n^p-1$ (try to get this result by yourself).
For 3):
Since $ymapsto x^y=e^yln x$ is continuous over $mathbbR$ whatever $xin mathbbR^+*$, $lim_nto inftyx^a_n=x^lim_nto inftya_n=x^p$. Thus, $lim_nto inftyg_n(x)=0$ for $xin ( 0,1 ]$. For $x=0$, the result is trivial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
To get you started, the main notion to know to handle the first two questions is that of an arithmetico-geometric sequence (in the French context which differs from the English one).
Then, you will easily notice how $a_n$ is an arithmetico-geometric sequence.
That gives you both:
an explicit formula for $a_n = frac1-q^-n+11-q^-1=sum_k=0^n-2q^-k = p(1-q^-n+1)$
its limit $lim_nto infty a_n=frac11-q^-1=p$
For 2):
$$
g'_n(x_n)=a_nx_n^a_n-1-px_n^p-1=0 Leftrightarrow x_n=left( fraca_np right)^frac1p-a_n
$$
which holds because $lim_nto infty a_n=p$ and $(a_n)_ngeq 0$ is increasing so $p-a_n> 0$ thus $x_n$ exists and is unique.
It is a maximum because of the sign of the difference of $xmapsto a_nx^a_n-1$ and $xmapsto px_n^p-1$ (try to get this result by yourself).
For 3):
Since $ymapsto x^y=e^yln x$ is continuous over $mathbbR$ whatever $xin mathbbR^+*$, $lim_nto inftyx^a_n=x^lim_nto inftya_n=x^p$. Thus, $lim_nto inftyg_n(x)=0$ for $xin ( 0,1 ]$. For $x=0$, the result is trivial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
To get you started, the main notion to know to handle the first two questions is that of an arithmetico-geometric sequence (in the French context which differs from the English one).
Then, you will easily notice how $a_n$ is an arithmetico-geometric sequence.
That gives you both:
an explicit formula for $a_n = frac1-q^-n+11-q^-1=sum_k=0^n-2q^-k = p(1-q^-n+1)$
its limit $lim_nto infty a_n=frac11-q^-1=p$
For 2):
$$
g'_n(x_n)=a_nx_n^a_n-1-px_n^p-1=0 Leftrightarrow x_n=left( fraca_np right)^frac1p-a_n
$$
which holds because $lim_nto infty a_n=p$ and $(a_n)_ngeq 0$ is increasing so $p-a_n> 0$ thus $x_n$ exists and is unique.
It is a maximum because of the sign of the difference of $xmapsto a_nx^a_n-1$ and $xmapsto px_n^p-1$ (try to get this result by yourself).
For 3):
Since $ymapsto x^y=e^yln x$ is continuous over $mathbbR$ whatever $xin mathbbR^+*$, $lim_nto inftyx^a_n=x^lim_nto inftya_n=x^p$. Thus, $lim_nto inftyg_n(x)=0$ for $xin ( 0,1 ]$. For $x=0$, the result is trivial.
$endgroup$
To get you started, the main notion to know to handle the first two questions is that of an arithmetico-geometric sequence (in the French context which differs from the English one).
Then, you will easily notice how $a_n$ is an arithmetico-geometric sequence.
That gives you both:
an explicit formula for $a_n = frac1-q^-n+11-q^-1=sum_k=0^n-2q^-k = p(1-q^-n+1)$
its limit $lim_nto infty a_n=frac11-q^-1=p$
For 2):
$$
g'_n(x_n)=a_nx_n^a_n-1-px_n^p-1=0 Leftrightarrow x_n=left( fraca_np right)^frac1p-a_n
$$
which holds because $lim_nto infty a_n=p$ and $(a_n)_ngeq 0$ is increasing so $p-a_n> 0$ thus $x_n$ exists and is unique.
It is a maximum because of the sign of the difference of $xmapsto a_nx^a_n-1$ and $xmapsto px_n^p-1$ (try to get this result by yourself).
For 3):
Since $ymapsto x^y=e^yln x$ is continuous over $mathbbR$ whatever $xin mathbbR^+*$, $lim_nto inftyx^a_n=x^lim_nto inftya_n=x^p$. Thus, $lim_nto inftyg_n(x)=0$ for $xin ( 0,1 ]$. For $x=0$, the result is trivial.
edited Apr 2 at 12:09
answered Apr 2 at 11:46
Bill O'HaranBill O'Haran
2,5831518
2,5831518
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
how about $c_n$? I don't how to deal with the exponent $1/q$.
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:52
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
To what question are you referring?
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 14:55
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
the 4th and the 5th
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
Try to use what I wrote in my answer for the 4th question. It should not be that hard, just follow the instructions. The 5th one is trickier.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Apr 2 at 15:00
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
$begingroup$
I checked it twice, but it seems your answer didn't mention the 4th question or $c_n$...
$endgroup$
– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 15:06
|
show 2 more comments
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1
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$1/p + 1/q = 1$ is a condition in Holder's inequality which is a major tool in functional analysis. $p$ and $q$ are dual to each other in a way. Is this an entrance exam for a Bachelor's degree?
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– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 9:55
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@LukasKofler no. it's for a master's degree
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– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:02
1
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I'm relieved! Anyway, with $p$ and $q$ as above, you get a connection between sequence spaces: $ell_p^* cong ell_q$.
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– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:12
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@LukasKofler ah… I thoughts it's a calculus or real analysis problem. I'm not familiar with functional analysis, maybe I'm not ready for this problem yet…
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– Shuumatsu
Apr 2 at 10:18
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Glancing over it, it doesn't seem to require any theorems from functional analysis. I was just trying to provide a justification for $1/p + 1/q = 1$.
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– Lukas Kofler
Apr 2 at 10:27