Is there a clear inconsistency with this Lewis like Mereological foundation of set theory? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Please help with translation of English to first order logicWhat is the consistency strength of Ackermann + the following cardinals to ordinals isomorphism?Is Reflection consistent with Resemblance?Is this basic number-set theory equivalent to PA?Reference request: Would this axiom motivate a Mereological foundation of set theory?Why the restriction to "elements of $V$' in the output of formulas used in Reflection axiom schema of Ackermann class theory?Is definable power sufficient to interpret ZFC?Is Ackermann set theory [minus class comprehension] equi-interpretable with Mereological Logicism?Reference Request: had relative part-hood been investigated before?Whats the consistency strength of this theory?

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Is there a clear inconsistency with this Lewis like Mereological foundation of set theory?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Please help with translation of English to first order logicWhat is the consistency strength of Ackermann + the following cardinals to ordinals isomorphism?Is Reflection consistent with Resemblance?Is this basic number-set theory equivalent to PA?Reference request: Would this axiom motivate a Mereological foundation of set theory?Why the restriction to "elements of $V$' in the output of formulas used in Reflection axiom schema of Ackermann class theory?Is definable power sufficient to interpret ZFC?Is Ackermann set theory [minus class comprehension] equi-interpretable with Mereological Logicism?Reference Request: had relative part-hood been investigated before?Whats the consistency strength of this theory?










0












$begingroup$


Lewis's approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, is very interesting by itself. The following shows that it can indeed provide an interpretation for Ackermann's set theory!



In brief let our base theory be Atomic General Extensional Mereology "AGEM". Add to it a binary relation symbol $mathcal L$ to stand for "is a label of", on top of part-hood $mathcal P$ and equality $=$, binary relations.



If we add axiom of "Bottom" to the underlying Mereology (which Lewis refuse based on non-technical grounds), then technically we can axiomatize the "bottom" atom $emptyset$ to be a non-labeling atom (so it would stand for the empty class $emptyset$, see below).



Of course adding Bottom would call us to re-define atom as an object whose only parts are itself and bottom; i.e. an object that do not have a proper part other than bottom.



We set two important axioms about labeling:



  1. Labeling is a bijective partial function.

  2. Labels are non-overlapping

Formally those are:



$forall a,b,x,y (x mathcal L a wedge y mathcal L b to [x=y leftrightarrow a=b] wedge neg x mathcal O y) $



Where $mathcal O$ means "overlaps", i.e. Share a common part other than bottom.



A class is defined as in Lewis as a Mereological totality of labels.



$class(x) iff forall y (y mathcal O x to exists z (label(z) wedge z mathcal P x wedge y mathcal O z))$



$label(z)$ means "$z$ is a label", i.e. $exists k (z mathcal L k)$



Class Membership is defined as:



$y in x iff class(x) wedge exists z (z mathcal P x wedge z mathcal L y)$



In English: $y$ is a member of $x$ if and only $x$ is a class and there is a part of $x$ that labels $y$.



Now a set is a defined as a class that has a label. Formally:



$set(x) iff class(x) wedge exists l (l mathcal L x)$



A class is said to be $nice$ if and only if all of its labeling parts are atoms; i.e. its a mereological totality of labeling atoms. Formally:



$nice(x) iff class(x) wedge forall y mathcal P x [label(y) to atom(y)]$



A nice set is a nice class that is labeled by an atom.



Now we only need ONE scheme to interpret all axioms of Ackermann's set theory that is:



If $psi$ is a formula in which all and only symbols $``y,x_1,..,x_n"$ occur free, that can only use symbols of $``= , in , class"$, as predicate symbols, then: $$forall text nice sets x_1,..,x_n \ [forall y (psi to nice(y)) to forall y (psi to text nice set (y))]$$; is an axiom.



This would interpret Ackermann's set theory over the realm of "pure" nice sets, i.e. nice sets that are $in$-hereditarily nice.



I see this interpretation of Ackermann's set theory in Lewis like approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, very interesting.



To be noted is that this theory proves the consistency of Ackermann's set theory, so it is stronger than ZFC.




Question: Is there is clear inconsistency with this theory?



Question: had there been prior work on that specific line of approach?











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    Lewis's approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, is very interesting by itself. The following shows that it can indeed provide an interpretation for Ackermann's set theory!



    In brief let our base theory be Atomic General Extensional Mereology "AGEM". Add to it a binary relation symbol $mathcal L$ to stand for "is a label of", on top of part-hood $mathcal P$ and equality $=$, binary relations.



    If we add axiom of "Bottom" to the underlying Mereology (which Lewis refuse based on non-technical grounds), then technically we can axiomatize the "bottom" atom $emptyset$ to be a non-labeling atom (so it would stand for the empty class $emptyset$, see below).



    Of course adding Bottom would call us to re-define atom as an object whose only parts are itself and bottom; i.e. an object that do not have a proper part other than bottom.



    We set two important axioms about labeling:



    1. Labeling is a bijective partial function.

    2. Labels are non-overlapping

    Formally those are:



    $forall a,b,x,y (x mathcal L a wedge y mathcal L b to [x=y leftrightarrow a=b] wedge neg x mathcal O y) $



    Where $mathcal O$ means "overlaps", i.e. Share a common part other than bottom.



    A class is defined as in Lewis as a Mereological totality of labels.



    $class(x) iff forall y (y mathcal O x to exists z (label(z) wedge z mathcal P x wedge y mathcal O z))$



    $label(z)$ means "$z$ is a label", i.e. $exists k (z mathcal L k)$



    Class Membership is defined as:



    $y in x iff class(x) wedge exists z (z mathcal P x wedge z mathcal L y)$



    In English: $y$ is a member of $x$ if and only $x$ is a class and there is a part of $x$ that labels $y$.



    Now a set is a defined as a class that has a label. Formally:



    $set(x) iff class(x) wedge exists l (l mathcal L x)$



    A class is said to be $nice$ if and only if all of its labeling parts are atoms; i.e. its a mereological totality of labeling atoms. Formally:



    $nice(x) iff class(x) wedge forall y mathcal P x [label(y) to atom(y)]$



    A nice set is a nice class that is labeled by an atom.



    Now we only need ONE scheme to interpret all axioms of Ackermann's set theory that is:



    If $psi$ is a formula in which all and only symbols $``y,x_1,..,x_n"$ occur free, that can only use symbols of $``= , in , class"$, as predicate symbols, then: $$forall text nice sets x_1,..,x_n \ [forall y (psi to nice(y)) to forall y (psi to text nice set (y))]$$; is an axiom.



    This would interpret Ackermann's set theory over the realm of "pure" nice sets, i.e. nice sets that are $in$-hereditarily nice.



    I see this interpretation of Ackermann's set theory in Lewis like approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, very interesting.



    To be noted is that this theory proves the consistency of Ackermann's set theory, so it is stronger than ZFC.




    Question: Is there is clear inconsistency with this theory?



    Question: had there been prior work on that specific line of approach?











    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$


      Lewis's approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, is very interesting by itself. The following shows that it can indeed provide an interpretation for Ackermann's set theory!



      In brief let our base theory be Atomic General Extensional Mereology "AGEM". Add to it a binary relation symbol $mathcal L$ to stand for "is a label of", on top of part-hood $mathcal P$ and equality $=$, binary relations.



      If we add axiom of "Bottom" to the underlying Mereology (which Lewis refuse based on non-technical grounds), then technically we can axiomatize the "bottom" atom $emptyset$ to be a non-labeling atom (so it would stand for the empty class $emptyset$, see below).



      Of course adding Bottom would call us to re-define atom as an object whose only parts are itself and bottom; i.e. an object that do not have a proper part other than bottom.



      We set two important axioms about labeling:



      1. Labeling is a bijective partial function.

      2. Labels are non-overlapping

      Formally those are:



      $forall a,b,x,y (x mathcal L a wedge y mathcal L b to [x=y leftrightarrow a=b] wedge neg x mathcal O y) $



      Where $mathcal O$ means "overlaps", i.e. Share a common part other than bottom.



      A class is defined as in Lewis as a Mereological totality of labels.



      $class(x) iff forall y (y mathcal O x to exists z (label(z) wedge z mathcal P x wedge y mathcal O z))$



      $label(z)$ means "$z$ is a label", i.e. $exists k (z mathcal L k)$



      Class Membership is defined as:



      $y in x iff class(x) wedge exists z (z mathcal P x wedge z mathcal L y)$



      In English: $y$ is a member of $x$ if and only $x$ is a class and there is a part of $x$ that labels $y$.



      Now a set is a defined as a class that has a label. Formally:



      $set(x) iff class(x) wedge exists l (l mathcal L x)$



      A class is said to be $nice$ if and only if all of its labeling parts are atoms; i.e. its a mereological totality of labeling atoms. Formally:



      $nice(x) iff class(x) wedge forall y mathcal P x [label(y) to atom(y)]$



      A nice set is a nice class that is labeled by an atom.



      Now we only need ONE scheme to interpret all axioms of Ackermann's set theory that is:



      If $psi$ is a formula in which all and only symbols $``y,x_1,..,x_n"$ occur free, that can only use symbols of $``= , in , class"$, as predicate symbols, then: $$forall text nice sets x_1,..,x_n \ [forall y (psi to nice(y)) to forall y (psi to text nice set (y))]$$; is an axiom.



      This would interpret Ackermann's set theory over the realm of "pure" nice sets, i.e. nice sets that are $in$-hereditarily nice.



      I see this interpretation of Ackermann's set theory in Lewis like approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, very interesting.



      To be noted is that this theory proves the consistency of Ackermann's set theory, so it is stronger than ZFC.




      Question: Is there is clear inconsistency with this theory?



      Question: had there been prior work on that specific line of approach?











      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Lewis's approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, is very interesting by itself. The following shows that it can indeed provide an interpretation for Ackermann's set theory!



      In brief let our base theory be Atomic General Extensional Mereology "AGEM". Add to it a binary relation symbol $mathcal L$ to stand for "is a label of", on top of part-hood $mathcal P$ and equality $=$, binary relations.



      If we add axiom of "Bottom" to the underlying Mereology (which Lewis refuse based on non-technical grounds), then technically we can axiomatize the "bottom" atom $emptyset$ to be a non-labeling atom (so it would stand for the empty class $emptyset$, see below).



      Of course adding Bottom would call us to re-define atom as an object whose only parts are itself and bottom; i.e. an object that do not have a proper part other than bottom.



      We set two important axioms about labeling:



      1. Labeling is a bijective partial function.

      2. Labels are non-overlapping

      Formally those are:



      $forall a,b,x,y (x mathcal L a wedge y mathcal L b to [x=y leftrightarrow a=b] wedge neg x mathcal O y) $



      Where $mathcal O$ means "overlaps", i.e. Share a common part other than bottom.



      A class is defined as in Lewis as a Mereological totality of labels.



      $class(x) iff forall y (y mathcal O x to exists z (label(z) wedge z mathcal P x wedge y mathcal O z))$



      $label(z)$ means "$z$ is a label", i.e. $exists k (z mathcal L k)$



      Class Membership is defined as:



      $y in x iff class(x) wedge exists z (z mathcal P x wedge z mathcal L y)$



      In English: $y$ is a member of $x$ if and only $x$ is a class and there is a part of $x$ that labels $y$.



      Now a set is a defined as a class that has a label. Formally:



      $set(x) iff class(x) wedge exists l (l mathcal L x)$



      A class is said to be $nice$ if and only if all of its labeling parts are atoms; i.e. its a mereological totality of labeling atoms. Formally:



      $nice(x) iff class(x) wedge forall y mathcal P x [label(y) to atom(y)]$



      A nice set is a nice class that is labeled by an atom.



      Now we only need ONE scheme to interpret all axioms of Ackermann's set theory that is:



      If $psi$ is a formula in which all and only symbols $``y,x_1,..,x_n"$ occur free, that can only use symbols of $``= , in , class"$, as predicate symbols, then: $$forall text nice sets x_1,..,x_n \ [forall y (psi to nice(y)) to forall y (psi to text nice set (y))]$$; is an axiom.



      This would interpret Ackermann's set theory over the realm of "pure" nice sets, i.e. nice sets that are $in$-hereditarily nice.



      I see this interpretation of Ackermann's set theory in Lewis like approach to Mereological foundation of set theory, very interesting.



      To be noted is that this theory proves the consistency of Ackermann's set theory, so it is stronger than ZFC.




      Question: Is there is clear inconsistency with this theory?



      Question: had there been prior work on that specific line of approach?








      reference-request first-order-logic alternative-set-theories






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Apr 4 at 16:46







      Zuhair

















      asked Apr 2 at 10:24









      ZuhairZuhair

      356212




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