$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$ for a convex differentiable function Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convexConvex function almost surely differentiable.Differentiable Strictly Convex Function on IntervalA conjectural inequality of the form $int_a^b g(B'_1(t)) dt le int_a^b g(B'_2(t)) dt $ with convex increasing $g$Logarithmically Convex FunctionIntegral of an increasing function is convex?Is the minimum of a parametric convex function convex again?Strictly increasing, strictly convex function: is the second derivative positive?Is a geometrically convex function also convex?Subdifferential of a convex differentiable functionA Convex Function Inequality (Similar to Convex Function Definition)

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$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$ for a convex differentiable function



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convexConvex function almost surely differentiable.Differentiable Strictly Convex Function on IntervalA conjectural inequality of the form $int_a^b g(B'_1(t)) dt le int_a^b g(B'_2(t)) dt $ with convex increasing $g$Logarithmically Convex FunctionIntegral of an increasing function is convex?Is the minimum of a parametric convex function convex again?Strictly increasing, strictly convex function: is the second derivative positive?Is a geometrically convex function also convex?Subdifferential of a convex differentiable functionA Convex Function Inequality (Similar to Convex Function Definition)










10












$begingroup$


If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$




Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.










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$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Apr 1 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
    $endgroup$
    – RAM_3R
    Apr 1 at 12:58















10












$begingroup$


If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$




Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Apr 1 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
    $endgroup$
    – RAM_3R
    Apr 1 at 12:58













10












10








10


2



$begingroup$


If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$




Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$




Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.







real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Apr 3 at 9:46









Martin R

31.2k33661




31.2k33661










asked Apr 1 at 11:51









RAM_3RRAM_3R

602216




602216











  • $begingroup$
    Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Apr 1 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
    $endgroup$
    – RAM_3R
    Apr 1 at 12:58
















  • $begingroup$
    Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Apr 1 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
    $endgroup$
    – RAM_3R
    Apr 1 at 12:58















$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14




$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14












$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58




$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:




If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$




Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$

then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$




Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$

The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$

Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$

Now we distinguish two cases:



  • If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.

  • If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
    $$
    int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
    $$

    and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.

So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.



Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$

so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.



Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$

everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.



    Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)



    Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $



    $ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)



    This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$



    Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Apr 2 at 11:24











    • $begingroup$
      Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
      $endgroup$
      – Anirban
      Apr 2 at 14:19











    • $begingroup$
      Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Apr 2 at 14:34











    • $begingroup$
      @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
      $endgroup$
      – Anirban
      Apr 2 at 15:36











    • $begingroup$
      As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
      $endgroup$
      – Anirban
      Apr 2 at 15:46












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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    4












    $begingroup$

    In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:




    If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
    int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$




    Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
    $$
    F(x) = begincases
    f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
    0 & text for x > b-a
    endcases
    $$

    then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
    $$
    int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
    $$




    Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
    Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
    $$
    varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
    $$

    The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
    $$
    0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
    $$

    Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
    $$
    varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
    = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
    $$

    Now we distinguish two cases:



    • If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.

    • If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
      $$
      int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
      $$

      and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.

    So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.



    Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
    $$
    varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
    $$

    so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.



    Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
    $$
    f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
    $$

    everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      4












      $begingroup$

      In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:




      If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
      int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$




      Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
      $$
      F(x) = begincases
      f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
      0 & text for x > b-a
      endcases
      $$

      then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
      $$
      int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
      $$




      Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
      Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
      $$
      varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
      $$

      The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
      $$
      0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
      $$

      Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
      $$
      varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
      = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
      $$

      Now we distinguish two cases:



      • If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.

      • If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
        $$
        int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
        $$

        and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.

      So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.



      Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
      $$
      varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
      $$

      so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.



      Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
      $$
      f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
      $$

      everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:




        If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
        int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$




        Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
        $$
        F(x) = begincases
        f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
        0 & text for x > b-a
        endcases
        $$

        then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
        $$
        int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
        $$




        Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
        Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
        $$
        varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
        $$

        The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
        $$
        0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
        $$

        Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
        $$
        varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
        = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
        $$

        Now we distinguish two cases:



        • If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.

        • If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
          $$
          int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
          $$

          and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.

        So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.



        Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
        $$
        varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
        $$

        so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.



        Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
        $$
        f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
        $$

        everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:




        If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
        int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$




        Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
        $$
        F(x) = begincases
        f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
        0 & text for x > b-a
        endcases
        $$

        then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
        $$
        int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
        $$




        Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
        Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
        $$
        varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
        $$

        The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
        $$
        0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
        $$

        Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
        $$
        varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
        = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
        $$

        Now we distinguish two cases:



        • If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.

        • If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
          $$
          int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
          $$

          and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.

        So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.



        Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
        $$
        varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
        $$

        so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.



        Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
        $$
        f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
        $$

        everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Apr 2 at 8:32

























        answered Apr 1 at 21:15









        Martin RMartin R

        31.2k33661




        31.2k33661





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.



            Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)



            Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $



            $ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)



            This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$



            Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 11:24











            • $begingroup$
              Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 14:19











            • $begingroup$
              Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 14:34











            • $begingroup$
              @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:36











            • $begingroup$
              As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:46
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.



            Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)



            Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $



            $ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)



            This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$



            Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 11:24











            • $begingroup$
              Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 14:19











            • $begingroup$
              Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 14:34











            • $begingroup$
              @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:36











            • $begingroup$
              As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:46














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.



            Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)



            Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $



            $ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)



            This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$



            Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.



            Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)



            Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $



            $ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)



            This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$



            Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Apr 3 at 5:10

























            answered Apr 2 at 10:03









            Anirban Anirban

            737




            737











            • $begingroup$
              The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 11:24











            • $begingroup$
              Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 14:19











            • $begingroup$
              Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 14:34











            • $begingroup$
              @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:36











            • $begingroup$
              As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:46

















            • $begingroup$
              The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 11:24











            • $begingroup$
              Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 14:19











            • $begingroup$
              Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin R
              Apr 2 at 14:34











            • $begingroup$
              @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:36











            • $begingroup$
              As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
              $endgroup$
              – Anirban
              Apr 2 at 15:46
















            $begingroup$
            The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Apr 2 at 11:24





            $begingroup$
            The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Apr 2 at 11:24













            $begingroup$
            Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 14:19





            $begingroup$
            Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 14:19













            $begingroup$
            Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Apr 2 at 14:34





            $begingroup$
            Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Apr 2 at 14:34













            $begingroup$
            @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 15:36





            $begingroup$
            @ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 15:36













            $begingroup$
            As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 15:46





            $begingroup$
            As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
            $endgroup$
            – Anirban
            Apr 2 at 15:46


















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