$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$ for a convex differentiable function Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convexConvex function almost surely differentiable.Differentiable Strictly Convex Function on IntervalA conjectural inequality of the form $int_a^b g(B'_1(t)) dt le int_a^b g(B'_2(t)) dt $ with convex increasing $g$Logarithmically Convex FunctionIntegral of an increasing function is convex?Is the minimum of a parametric convex function convex again?Strictly increasing, strictly convex function: is the second derivative positive?Is a geometrically convex function also convex?Subdifferential of a convex differentiable functionA Convex Function Inequality (Similar to Convex Function Definition)
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$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$ for a convex differentiable function
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convexConvex function almost surely differentiable.Differentiable Strictly Convex Function on IntervalA conjectural inequality of the form $int_a^b g(B'_1(t)) dt le int_a^b g(B'_2(t)) dt $ with convex increasing $g$Logarithmically Convex FunctionIntegral of an increasing function is convex?Is the minimum of a parametric convex function convex again?Strictly increasing, strictly convex function: is the second derivative positive?Is a geometrically convex function also convex?Subdifferential of a convex differentiable functionA Convex Function Inequality (Similar to Convex Function Definition)
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If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$
Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.
real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$
Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.
real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality
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Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
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– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
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Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$
Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.
real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality
$endgroup$
If $f:[a,b] to mathbbR, f(a)=0,f(b)=1$ is a convex increasing differentiable function on the interval $[a,b]$ . Prove that
$$int_a^bf^2(x),dxle frac23int_a^bf(x),dx$$
Since f is convex and increasing so $f''(x)ge 0 $ and $f'(x)ge 0$. Then I consider a function $g:[a,b]to mathbbR$, $g(x)=frac23int_a^xf(t),dt-int_a^xf^2(t),dt$. Now $f$ is differentiable implies $g$ is also but can't conclude $g'(x)ge 0$.
real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality
real-analysis inequality convex-analysis integral-inequality
edited Apr 3 at 9:46
Martin R
31.2k33661
31.2k33661
asked Apr 1 at 11:51
RAM_3RRAM_3R
602216
602216
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Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58
$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58
$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:
If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$
Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$
then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$
Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$
The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$
Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$
Now we distinguish two cases:
- If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.
- If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
$$
int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
$$
and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.
So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.
Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$
so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.
Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$
everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.
Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)
Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $
$ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)
This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$
Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.
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The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
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– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
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Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
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– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
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Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
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– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
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@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
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– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
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As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:
If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$
Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$
then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$
Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$
The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$
Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$
Now we distinguish two cases:
- If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.
- If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
$$
int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
$$
and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.
So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.
Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$
so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.
Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$
everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:
If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$
Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$
then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$
Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$
The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$
Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$
Now we distinguish two cases:
- If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.
- If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
$$
int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
$$
and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.
So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.
Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$
so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.
Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$
everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:
If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$
Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$
then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$
Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$
The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$
Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$
Now we distinguish two cases:
- If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.
- If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
$$
int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
$$
and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.
So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.
Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$
so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.
Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$
everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.
$endgroup$
In Prove $int _0^infty f^2 dx leq cdots $ for $f$ convex the following theorem was shown:
If $F$ is convex and non-negative on $[0, infty)$ then $$
int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx , .$$
Our function $f$ is non-negative and convex on $[a, b]$ with $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 1$. If we define $F$ on $[0, infty)$ as
$$
F(x) = begincases
f(b-x) & text for 0 le x le b-a \
0 & text for x > b-a
endcases
$$
then $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of the above theorem, and therefore
$$
int_a^bf^2(x),dx = int _0^infty F^2(x) dx leq frac23cdot max_x in mathbb R^+ F(x) cdot int _0^infty F(x) dx = frac23int_a^bf(x),dx , .
$$
Alternatively we can modify the proof of the above theorem for this case.
Define $varphi: [a, b] to Bbb R$ as
$$
varphi(x) = frac 23 f(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - int_a^x f^2(t) , dt , .
$$
The goal is to show that $varphi$ is (weakly) increasing. Then the desired conclusion follows with
$$
0 = varphi(a) le varphi(b) = frac 23 int_a^b f(t) , dt - int_a^b f^2(t) , .
$$
Since $f$ is assumed to be differentiable, we have
$$
varphi'(x) = frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt + frac 23 f^2(x) - f^2(x) \
= frac 23 f'(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt - frac 13 f^2(x) , .
$$
Now we distinguish two cases:
- If $f'(x) =0$ then $f'(t) =0$ for $a le t le x$, so that $f(x) = f(a) = 0$ and therefore $varphi'(x) = 0$.
- If $f'(x) >0$ then we estimate $f(t)$ from below by the tangent at $(x, f(x))$:
$$
int_a^x f(t) , dt ge int_x-f(x)/f'(x)^x bigl( f(x) + (t-x)f'(x) bigr) , dt = fracf^2(x)2f'(x)
$$
and therefore $varphi'(x) ge 0$.
So $varphi'(x) ge 0$ for all $x in [a, b]$, which means that $varphi$ is increasing on the interval, and we are done.
Remark 1: The proof becomes easier if we assume that $f$ is twice differentiable. Then
$$
varphi''(x) = frac 23 f''(x) int_a^x f(t) , dt ge 0
$$
so that $varphi'(x) ge varphi'(0) = 0$.
Remark 2: The proof works even without the assumption that $f$ is differentiable: As a convex function, $f$ has a right derivative
$$
f_+'(x) = lim_substackh to 0\ h > 0 fracf(x+h)-f(x)h
$$
everywhere in $[a, b)$, and we can replace $f'$ by $f_+'$ and $varphi'$ by $varphi_+'$ in the above argument.
edited Apr 2 at 8:32
answered Apr 1 at 21:15
Martin RMartin R
31.2k33661
31.2k33661
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.
Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)
Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $
$ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)
This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$
Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.
Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)
Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $
$ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)
This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$
Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.
Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)
Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $
$ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)
This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$
Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.
$endgroup$
Without any loss of generality, we shift and scale to set $a=0, b=1$. And now we consider the integrals, $ int_0^1f(x)dx $ and $ int_0^1f^2(x) dx $.
Convexity of $ f(x) $ assures that $f(x)leq x$. (1)
Now, we write the integrals as limits of Riemann sums.$ int_0^1f^2(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f^2(rh) times h)$ $int_0^1f(x) dx = lim_h to 0, N to inftysum_r=0^N(f(rh) times h) $
$ f^2(rh) / f(rh) =f(rh) leq rh$ (from (1)). For this ratio to be maximum (that is when the ratio $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx$ is maximum), $ f(rh)=rh $ for all $r$. $Rightarrow f(x)=x $. (2)
This means $ frac int_0^1f^2(x) dxint_0^1f(x) dx leq frac int_0^1x^2 dxint_0^1x dx = frac23$
Edit: The maximisation holds if a unique maximum function exists in every interval of (2). This holds if $f(x)$ is convex. Otherwise as correctly pointed out by Martin, this ratio can be more than $frac23$. For example, if $ f(x)= sin^2(fracpi x2)$, this ratio is 3/4.
edited Apr 3 at 5:10
answered Apr 2 at 10:03
Anirban Anirban
737
737
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
The ratio of Riemann sums is $dfracsum_r=1^N f^2(frac rN)sum_r=1^N f(frac rN)$. Why is that maximal for $f(x) = x$? – If your argument is correct then the integral inequality would hold for all functions on $[0, 1]$ with $0 le f(x) le x$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 11:24
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Because in every small interval $ (rh, (r+1)h) $ the ratio $ 𝑓^2(𝑟ℎ)/𝑓(𝑟ℎ)=𝑓(𝑟ℎ)$. As a convex function will lie below (or coincide with) the chord $y=x$, we must have $f(rh) leq rh$. And yes, the integral inequality would hold if $0 leq f(x) leq x$. The convexity assures that only.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 14:19
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
Here is a counter-example (unless I made some error): $f(x) = sqrt2x-1$ for $0.5 le x le 1$, $f(x) = 0$ otherwise. Then $int_0^1 f^2(x)dx = frac 14$ and $int_0^1 f(x) dx = frac 13$.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Apr 2 at 14:34
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
@ Martin R, But then $f(x)$ is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:36
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
$begingroup$
As they didn't allow me to edit the comment and I am new in this site to know this, here is a more helpful comment. your counterexample function, $f(x)=0 $ for $ 0<x<1/2 $ violates your premise in that it is not increasing always. $f(x) >0$ is implied by your condition that $ f(x) $ is increasing. That the ratio, $ f^2(rh)/f(rh)$ is defined is assumed in my calculations.
$endgroup$
– Anirban
Apr 2 at 15:46
|
show 1 more comment
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$begingroup$
Isn't $g'(x)=2/3f(x)-f^2(x)$ and so $g'(b)=2/3f(b)-f^2(b)=2/3-1=-1/3<0$?
$endgroup$
– blub
Apr 1 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Yea ...but from here what we can do ???
$endgroup$
– RAM_3R
Apr 1 at 12:58