Does every short exact sequence split?Additive functor over a short split exact sequence.Splitting short exact sequence of space groupsShort exact sequence is split iff contractibleSplitting of Short Exact sequenceDetermine if the following short exact sequence is split.A short exact sequence with $M=M_1 oplus M_2$ that does not splitShort exact sequence terminating at $mathbbZ/2$Short exact sequence and splitting lemmaShort exact sequence on modulesDoes an embedding necessarily make a short exact sequence split?

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Does every short exact sequence split?


Additive functor over a short split exact sequence.Splitting short exact sequence of space groupsShort exact sequence is split iff contractibleSplitting of Short Exact sequenceDetermine if the following short exact sequence is split.A short exact sequence with $M=M_1 oplus M_2$ that does not splitShort exact sequence terminating at $mathbbZ/2$Short exact sequence and splitting lemmaShort exact sequence on modulesDoes an embedding necessarily make a short exact sequence split?













1












$begingroup$


enter image description here



If we have a short exact sequence $0 to A to B to C to 0$, then the map $A to B$ is injective and the map $B to C$ is surjective.



Therefore, there always exists a left inverse for $i$ and a right inverse for $j$. So, every short exact sequence splits?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Mar 28 at 19:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 19:47






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 28 at 19:48







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 28 at 20:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 29 at 3:36















1












$begingroup$


enter image description here



If we have a short exact sequence $0 to A to B to C to 0$, then the map $A to B$ is injective and the map $B to C$ is surjective.



Therefore, there always exists a left inverse for $i$ and a right inverse for $j$. So, every short exact sequence splits?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Mar 28 at 19:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 19:47






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 28 at 19:48







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 28 at 20:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 29 at 3:36













1












1








1





$begingroup$


enter image description here



If we have a short exact sequence $0 to A to B to C to 0$, then the map $A to B$ is injective and the map $B to C$ is surjective.



Therefore, there always exists a left inverse for $i$ and a right inverse for $j$. So, every short exact sequence splits?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




enter image description here



If we have a short exact sequence $0 to A to B to C to 0$, then the map $A to B$ is injective and the map $B to C$ is surjective.



Therefore, there always exists a left inverse for $i$ and a right inverse for $j$. So, every short exact sequence splits?







abstract-algebra proof-verification algebraic-topology homological-algebra exact-sequence






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 28 at 19:42









Al JebrAl Jebr

4,39743478




4,39743478







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Mar 28 at 19:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 19:47






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 28 at 19:48







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 28 at 20:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 29 at 3:36












  • 6




    $begingroup$
    As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Mar 28 at 19:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 19:47






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 28 at 19:48







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 28 at 20:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    Mar 29 at 3:36







6




6




$begingroup$
As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Andrews
Mar 28 at 19:46




$begingroup$
As functions, onto maps always have inverses, but those inverses might not work as algebraic homomorphisms.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Andrews
Mar 28 at 19:46




2




2




$begingroup$
@ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 19:47




$begingroup$
@ThomasAndrews That's not even a hint. That's a full answer. Please don't put those in comments.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 19:47




2




2




$begingroup$
As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Mar 28 at 19:48





$begingroup$
As the excerpt notes, if $0to Ato Bto Cto 0$ is exact and splits, then you get $Bcong Aoplus C$. So the question you should ask yourself is, "If $B$ is an abelian group and $A$ is a subgroup, can I always write $B$ as a direct sum with $A$ as one summand?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Mar 28 at 19:48





1




1




$begingroup$
You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
Mar 28 at 20:46




$begingroup$
You should look up the terms "projective module" and "injective module". If you have not seen modules, a quick explanation is that general R-modules have the same notion of exact sequences as abelian groups. Then, $C$ is projective, if and only if, any exact sequence $ 0 rightarrow A rightarrow B rightarrow C rightarrow 0$ splits. You might be able to guess the dual equivalence for injective modules. A great exercise would be to use this as a definition for projective abelian group and to try to characterize them.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
Mar 28 at 20:46




1




1




$begingroup$
Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
Mar 29 at 3:36




$begingroup$
Two things: you are correct that modules are abelian groups with extra structure, but that doesn't mean this result is stronger because the result for modules gives decompositions into direct sums of modules. The result for abelian groups does not imply it for modules (imply being used informally). In fact, the opposite is true. The result for modules implies it for abelian groups because abelian groups are $mathbbZ$ modules.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
Mar 29 at 3:36










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

The question's already been answered in the comments, but for posterity there should be an official one.



The answer is No and a nice counterexample is



$$ 0 to mathbbZ to mathbbZ to mathbbZ/2 to 0$$



We know this can't split because the Splitting Lemma would then imply $mathbbZ cong mathbbZ oplus mathbbZ/2$, which is a contradiction because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.



It is true that in the category of Sets every surjective function has a right inverse and every injective function has a left inverse, but this is not true in the category of Abelian Groups. Indeed a right inverse $mathbbZ/2 to mathbbZ$ of the quotient map would be any function sending $0$ to an even number and $1$ to an odd number, but this can never be a homomorphism, again because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.






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    1












    $begingroup$

    The question's already been answered in the comments, but for posterity there should be an official one.



    The answer is No and a nice counterexample is



    $$ 0 to mathbbZ to mathbbZ to mathbbZ/2 to 0$$



    We know this can't split because the Splitting Lemma would then imply $mathbbZ cong mathbbZ oplus mathbbZ/2$, which is a contradiction because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.



    It is true that in the category of Sets every surjective function has a right inverse and every injective function has a left inverse, but this is not true in the category of Abelian Groups. Indeed a right inverse $mathbbZ/2 to mathbbZ$ of the quotient map would be any function sending $0$ to an even number and $1$ to an odd number, but this can never be a homomorphism, again because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      The question's already been answered in the comments, but for posterity there should be an official one.



      The answer is No and a nice counterexample is



      $$ 0 to mathbbZ to mathbbZ to mathbbZ/2 to 0$$



      We know this can't split because the Splitting Lemma would then imply $mathbbZ cong mathbbZ oplus mathbbZ/2$, which is a contradiction because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.



      It is true that in the category of Sets every surjective function has a right inverse and every injective function has a left inverse, but this is not true in the category of Abelian Groups. Indeed a right inverse $mathbbZ/2 to mathbbZ$ of the quotient map would be any function sending $0$ to an even number and $1$ to an odd number, but this can never be a homomorphism, again because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        The question's already been answered in the comments, but for posterity there should be an official one.



        The answer is No and a nice counterexample is



        $$ 0 to mathbbZ to mathbbZ to mathbbZ/2 to 0$$



        We know this can't split because the Splitting Lemma would then imply $mathbbZ cong mathbbZ oplus mathbbZ/2$, which is a contradiction because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.



        It is true that in the category of Sets every surjective function has a right inverse and every injective function has a left inverse, but this is not true in the category of Abelian Groups. Indeed a right inverse $mathbbZ/2 to mathbbZ$ of the quotient map would be any function sending $0$ to an even number and $1$ to an odd number, but this can never be a homomorphism, again because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The question's already been answered in the comments, but for posterity there should be an official one.



        The answer is No and a nice counterexample is



        $$ 0 to mathbbZ to mathbbZ to mathbbZ/2 to 0$$



        We know this can't split because the Splitting Lemma would then imply $mathbbZ cong mathbbZ oplus mathbbZ/2$, which is a contradiction because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.



        It is true that in the category of Sets every surjective function has a right inverse and every injective function has a left inverse, but this is not true in the category of Abelian Groups. Indeed a right inverse $mathbbZ/2 to mathbbZ$ of the quotient map would be any function sending $0$ to an even number and $1$ to an odd number, but this can never be a homomorphism, again because $mathbbZ$ has no torsion.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 28 at 21:54

























        answered Mar 28 at 21:37









        WilliamWilliam

        3,1021227




        3,1021227



























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