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Homogeneous Markov Chain


Transforming an inhomogeneous Markov chain to a homogeneous oneProve Markov Chain by definitionMarkov-chain propertiestime-homogeneous continuous time Markov chainProving identity of Markov chain.Markov Process, Markov ChainInequality with a homogeneous markov chain and hitting probabilitiesMarkov chain transition matrix and homogeneityHow to construct a Markov Chain of higher order given another Markov ChainA die is rolled repreatedly and … is it a Markov Chain?













1












$begingroup$


If $X_n$ is a homogeneous Markov chain, is it true that $X_n^2$ ($n$ is of the power $2$ not $X_n$) is also a homogeneous Markov chain? And why?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Mar 28 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 20:50















1












$begingroup$


If $X_n$ is a homogeneous Markov chain, is it true that $X_n^2$ ($n$ is of the power $2$ not $X_n$) is also a homogeneous Markov chain? And why?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Mar 28 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 20:50













1












1








1





$begingroup$


If $X_n$ is a homogeneous Markov chain, is it true that $X_n^2$ ($n$ is of the power $2$ not $X_n$) is also a homogeneous Markov chain? And why?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




If $X_n$ is a homogeneous Markov chain, is it true that $X_n^2$ ($n$ is of the power $2$ not $X_n$) is also a homogeneous Markov chain? And why?







stochastic-processes






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 28 at 21:14









Shashi

7,3621628




7,3621628






New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked Mar 28 at 20:43









Jennyfer LahoudJennyfer Lahoud

74




74




New contributor




Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Mar 28 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 20:50
















  • $begingroup$
    What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Mar 28 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 20:50















$begingroup$
What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Mar 28 at 20:47




$begingroup$
What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Mar 28 at 20:47












$begingroup$
I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
$endgroup$
– Jennyfer Lahoud
Mar 28 at 20:50




$begingroup$
I know that its not true, but I dont know the counter example.
$endgroup$
– Jennyfer Lahoud
Mar 28 at 20:50










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Here is a simple example. Consider the random walk on $mathbb Z$ that stays at its position, goes to right or left with probability $1/3$ each. We consider the a particular transition probability
beginalign
p_n(0,2):=mathbb P(X_n^2=2 mid X_(n-1)^2=0 )
endalign

which, if $X_n$ is a homoegeneous Markov chain, should not depend on $n$. But guess what? It depends on $n$, we have
beginalign
p_1(0,2)=mathbb P(X_1=2mid X_0=0)=0
endalign

while
beginalign
p_2(0,2)=mathbb P(X_4=2mid X_1=0)>0
endalign

Now it remains to think about why we have $p_2(0,2)>0$... Do you see why?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Alright. Thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 21:23











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Here is a simple example. Consider the random walk on $mathbb Z$ that stays at its position, goes to right or left with probability $1/3$ each. We consider the a particular transition probability
beginalign
p_n(0,2):=mathbb P(X_n^2=2 mid X_(n-1)^2=0 )
endalign

which, if $X_n$ is a homoegeneous Markov chain, should not depend on $n$. But guess what? It depends on $n$, we have
beginalign
p_1(0,2)=mathbb P(X_1=2mid X_0=0)=0
endalign

while
beginalign
p_2(0,2)=mathbb P(X_4=2mid X_1=0)>0
endalign

Now it remains to think about why we have $p_2(0,2)>0$... Do you see why?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Alright. Thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 21:23















2












$begingroup$

Here is a simple example. Consider the random walk on $mathbb Z$ that stays at its position, goes to right or left with probability $1/3$ each. We consider the a particular transition probability
beginalign
p_n(0,2):=mathbb P(X_n^2=2 mid X_(n-1)^2=0 )
endalign

which, if $X_n$ is a homoegeneous Markov chain, should not depend on $n$. But guess what? It depends on $n$, we have
beginalign
p_1(0,2)=mathbb P(X_1=2mid X_0=0)=0
endalign

while
beginalign
p_2(0,2)=mathbb P(X_4=2mid X_1=0)>0
endalign

Now it remains to think about why we have $p_2(0,2)>0$... Do you see why?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Alright. Thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 21:23













2












2








2





$begingroup$

Here is a simple example. Consider the random walk on $mathbb Z$ that stays at its position, goes to right or left with probability $1/3$ each. We consider the a particular transition probability
beginalign
p_n(0,2):=mathbb P(X_n^2=2 mid X_(n-1)^2=0 )
endalign

which, if $X_n$ is a homoegeneous Markov chain, should not depend on $n$. But guess what? It depends on $n$, we have
beginalign
p_1(0,2)=mathbb P(X_1=2mid X_0=0)=0
endalign

while
beginalign
p_2(0,2)=mathbb P(X_4=2mid X_1=0)>0
endalign

Now it remains to think about why we have $p_2(0,2)>0$... Do you see why?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Here is a simple example. Consider the random walk on $mathbb Z$ that stays at its position, goes to right or left with probability $1/3$ each. We consider the a particular transition probability
beginalign
p_n(0,2):=mathbb P(X_n^2=2 mid X_(n-1)^2=0 )
endalign

which, if $X_n$ is a homoegeneous Markov chain, should not depend on $n$. But guess what? It depends on $n$, we have
beginalign
p_1(0,2)=mathbb P(X_1=2mid X_0=0)=0
endalign

while
beginalign
p_2(0,2)=mathbb P(X_4=2mid X_1=0)>0
endalign

Now it remains to think about why we have $p_2(0,2)>0$... Do you see why?







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Mar 28 at 21:18

























answered Mar 28 at 21:13









ShashiShashi

7,3621628




7,3621628











  • $begingroup$
    Alright. Thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 21:23
















  • $begingroup$
    Alright. Thank you
    $endgroup$
    – Jennyfer Lahoud
    Mar 28 at 21:23















$begingroup$
Alright. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Jennyfer Lahoud
Mar 28 at 21:23




$begingroup$
Alright. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Jennyfer Lahoud
Mar 28 at 21:23










Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.











Jennyfer Lahoud is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.














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