Showing that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$ if $R$ is a fieldHow to prove that field of rational functions is a *proper* subset of field of formal Laurent series?How to prove that $k(x)$ is not complete in the $x$-adic metricRing theory, field of fractionsInvertible polynomials and power seriesShow that the Laurent Polynomials form a ringCharacterize units in formal power series $R[[x]]$Counter-example for the Multiplication of Classical Laurent SeriesPolynomial ring with automorphism-induced multiplicationThe set of formal power series over a fieldis a local ring?Prove that exist $f_1$ and $f_2$ such that $f=f_1+f_2$Understanding the field of fractions of $F[[x]]$ (the ring of formal power series in the indeterminate x with coefficents in F)Field of Fractions over Formal Power Series

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Showing that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$ if $R$ is a field


How to prove that field of rational functions is a *proper* subset of field of formal Laurent series?How to prove that $k(x)$ is not complete in the $x$-adic metricRing theory, field of fractionsInvertible polynomials and power seriesShow that the Laurent Polynomials form a ringCharacterize units in formal power series $R[[x]]$Counter-example for the Multiplication of Classical Laurent SeriesPolynomial ring with automorphism-induced multiplicationThe set of formal power series over a fieldis a local ring?Prove that exist $f_1$ and $f_2$ such that $f=f_1+f_2$Understanding the field of fractions of $F[[x]]$ (the ring of formal power series in the indeterminate x with coefficents in F)Field of Fractions over Formal Power Series













11












$begingroup$



I would like to show that if $R$ is a field, then $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, where $R(x)$ is the ring of rational functions, and $R((x))$ is the ring of formal Laurent series.




If $f in R(x)$, then $f(x) = f_1(x)f_2^-1(x)$, where $f_1(x), f_2(x) in R[x]$. So I wrote this as $$f(x) = fracsum_i=0^na_ix^isum_j=0^mb_jx^j;,$$ and I would like to show that I can write $f$ in the form $sum_k=r^inftyc_kx^k$. However, I am unsure how to manipulate $f$ in order to show this. What I was thinking was to find some formal power series expansion for $f_2^-1(x)$, multiply out the summation with $f_1(x)$, then rearrange the coefficients and terms to obtain the desired form. However, I can't seem to derive a formula for the inverse of a polynomial in general that I could use for this. How can I go about manipulating $f_2^-1(x)$ to show this? Any suggestions?



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 20:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:25










  • $begingroup$
    @JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:28






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:47







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 4 '12 at 11:50















11












$begingroup$



I would like to show that if $R$ is a field, then $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, where $R(x)$ is the ring of rational functions, and $R((x))$ is the ring of formal Laurent series.




If $f in R(x)$, then $f(x) = f_1(x)f_2^-1(x)$, where $f_1(x), f_2(x) in R[x]$. So I wrote this as $$f(x) = fracsum_i=0^na_ix^isum_j=0^mb_jx^j;,$$ and I would like to show that I can write $f$ in the form $sum_k=r^inftyc_kx^k$. However, I am unsure how to manipulate $f$ in order to show this. What I was thinking was to find some formal power series expansion for $f_2^-1(x)$, multiply out the summation with $f_1(x)$, then rearrange the coefficients and terms to obtain the desired form. However, I can't seem to derive a formula for the inverse of a polynomial in general that I could use for this. How can I go about manipulating $f_2^-1(x)$ to show this? Any suggestions?



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 20:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:25










  • $begingroup$
    @JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:28






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:47







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 4 '12 at 11:50













11












11








11


5



$begingroup$



I would like to show that if $R$ is a field, then $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, where $R(x)$ is the ring of rational functions, and $R((x))$ is the ring of formal Laurent series.




If $f in R(x)$, then $f(x) = f_1(x)f_2^-1(x)$, where $f_1(x), f_2(x) in R[x]$. So I wrote this as $$f(x) = fracsum_i=0^na_ix^isum_j=0^mb_jx^j;,$$ and I would like to show that I can write $f$ in the form $sum_k=r^inftyc_kx^k$. However, I am unsure how to manipulate $f$ in order to show this. What I was thinking was to find some formal power series expansion for $f_2^-1(x)$, multiply out the summation with $f_1(x)$, then rearrange the coefficients and terms to obtain the desired form. However, I can't seem to derive a formula for the inverse of a polynomial in general that I could use for this. How can I go about manipulating $f_2^-1(x)$ to show this? Any suggestions?



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





I would like to show that if $R$ is a field, then $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, where $R(x)$ is the ring of rational functions, and $R((x))$ is the ring of formal Laurent series.




If $f in R(x)$, then $f(x) = f_1(x)f_2^-1(x)$, where $f_1(x), f_2(x) in R[x]$. So I wrote this as $$f(x) = fracsum_i=0^na_ix^isum_j=0^mb_jx^j;,$$ and I would like to show that I can write $f$ in the form $sum_k=r^inftyc_kx^k$. However, I am unsure how to manipulate $f$ in order to show this. What I was thinking was to find some formal power series expansion for $f_2^-1(x)$, multiply out the summation with $f_1(x)$, then rearrange the coefficients and terms to obtain the desired form. However, I can't seem to derive a formula for the inverse of a polynomial in general that I could use for this. How can I go about manipulating $f_2^-1(x)$ to show this? Any suggestions?



Thanks!







abstract-algebra field-theory power-series






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 2 '16 at 7:45









user26857

39.5k124283




39.5k124283










asked Nov 3 '12 at 20:26









Nizbel99Nizbel99

314418




314418







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 20:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:25










  • $begingroup$
    @JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:28






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:47







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 4 '12 at 11:50












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 20:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:25










  • $begingroup$
    @JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:28






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:47







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    @Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Nov 4 '12 at 11:50







2




2




$begingroup$
Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 3 '12 at 20:55




$begingroup$
Your main concern seem sto be with subset, but you als have to show proper. For the latter, consider the power series for $sin(x)$, for example, and observe that a rational function would have only finitely many zeroes.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 3 '12 at 20:55




3




3




$begingroup$
@Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 3 '12 at 21:25




$begingroup$
@Hagen: The power series of $sin x$ may not exist, if all those factorials are not invertible in $R$, or equivalently if $R$ has a positive characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 3 '12 at 21:25












$begingroup$
@JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
$endgroup$
– Nizbel99
Nov 3 '12 at 21:28




$begingroup$
@JyrkiLahtonen: You're right that it may not exist for any ring R, but for my purpose, I can assume that R is a field. So every non-zero element should have an inverse :)
$endgroup$
– Nizbel99
Nov 3 '12 at 21:28




3




3




$begingroup$
@user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 3 '12 at 21:47





$begingroup$
@user43552: Yes, but Jyrki is right. That all nonzero elements are invertible does not mean that e.g. $2$ is invertible because we might have $2=0$. Thus you need a different approach to show that the subset is proper. I suggest $$f(x)=sum_n=0^infty x^n!.$$ Whatever polynomial $q(x)$ you assume as denominator, the gappy high order terms of $q(x)f(x)$ do not cancel, hence $q(x)f(x)$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 3 '12 at 21:47





4




4




$begingroup$
@Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 4 '12 at 11:50




$begingroup$
@Hagen: You might flesh that counterexample out to an answer.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Nov 4 '12 at 11:50










5 Answers
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HINT: Write $f_2(x)$ in the form $x^rg(x)$, where $g$ has a non-zero constant term. Then $g(x)$ has an inverse in $R[[x]]$.



An easy induction shows that its coefficients can be calculated recursively: just start calculating! For instance, if $g(x)=a_0+a_1x+ldots+a_mx^m$, and the inverse is to be $h(x)=sum_kge 0b_kx^k$, it’s clear that you want $b_0=a_0^-1$. Then the first degree term in $g(x)h(x)$ must be $$(a_0b_1+a_1b_0)x=(a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1)x;,$$



so $a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1=0$, and you can solve for $b_1$. It’s easy to prove that this can be continued recursively.



And from there you’re pretty much home free.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:01







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
    $endgroup$
    – Brian M. Scott
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:05











  • $begingroup$
    Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:08










  • $begingroup$
    @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
    $endgroup$
    – Brian M. Scott
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:09











  • $begingroup$
    I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
    $endgroup$
    – Nizbel99
    Nov 3 '12 at 21:16


















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In case $R$ is finite or countable, the rational-function field is countable, while the Laurent-series field is uncountable.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    3





    +100







    $begingroup$

    To show that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, we first need to ignore the "is". Using more precision, I'd prefer to say that $R(x)$ is canonically isomorphic to a proper subring of $R((X))$.



    First part: subset



    We have a canonical and straightforward map from the ring $R[x]$ of polynomial to the ring $R((X))$ fo formal Laurent series (this does not even require $R$ to be a field) and accordingly identify polynomials with their corresponding power series.
    To extend this map to $R(x)$ we need to find, for every non-zero polynomial $fin R[x]$, a series $uin R((x))$ such that $fcdot u=1$.
    First consider the case that $f$ has constant term $1$. Then we can define $u_i$, $iinBbb N$, recursively such that for all $n$
    $$tag1 f(x)cdot sum_i=0^nu_ix^iin 1+x^nR[x]$$
    Indeed, we can just let $u_0=1$ and then recursively let $u_n$ be $-1$ times the coefficient of $x^n$ in the polynomial $f(x)cdotsum_i=0^n-1u_ix^i$.
    We obtain a power series $u(x)$ with $f(x)u(x)=1$ as desired.



    Now consider general $fne 0$. Then it can be written as $acdot x^kcdot hat f$ where $ain Rsetminus 0$, $kin Bbb N_0$, $hat f$ is a polynomial with constant term $1$.
    As just seen, there is a power series $hat u$ with $hat fhat u=1$. Then $u:=a^-1x^-khat u$ is a Laurent series with $fu=1$, as desired. (Here is the only place where we use that $R$ is a field: We need to find $a^-1$).



    Remark: Actually, it suffices to know that $R((x))$ is itself a field; which by itself can be proved by finding a multiplicative inverse recursively (almost) precisely as above.



    Second part: proper



    It suffices to exhibit a single formal Laurent series that cannot be written as quotient of polynomials.
    Consider
    $$ u(x)=sum_k=0^infty x^k^2 $$
    and assume that $u=frac fg$ with $gne 0$, say $g(x)=sum_j=0^d a_jx^j$ with $a_dne 0$.
    Pick $mge maxd,1$.
    Then in multiplying $u(x)g(x)$ we see that the coefficient of $x^m^2+d$ equals $a_d$ because $deg(x^kg)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1mid x^kg$ for $k>m$. Hence $ug$ has infinitely many nonzero coefficients and is not a polynomial.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
      $endgroup$
      – Hagen von Eitzen
      Apr 7 '16 at 14:18










    • $begingroup$
      I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
      $endgroup$
      – rschwieb
      Apr 7 '16 at 16:40











    • $begingroup$
      @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
      $endgroup$
      – DonAntonio
      Apr 8 '16 at 14:07










    • $begingroup$
      Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
      $endgroup$
      – Torsten Schoeneberg
      Dec 19 '17 at 17:59



















    0












    $begingroup$

    Hint $rmdisplaystylequad 1: =: (a-xf)(b-xg) Rightarrow ab=1$
    $$Rightarrow displaystylermfrac1b-xf = fraca1-axf = a:(1+axf+(axf)^2+(axf)^3+:cdots:)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$








    • 2




      $begingroup$
      Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 20:43


















    0












    $begingroup$

    If your field $R$ is countable, if I am not mistaken, another possible argument is a cardinality argument, probbably (?) under the Axiom of Choice though :



    $R[x]$ can be viewed as $bigcup_ninmathbf N R^n$, a countable union of countable sets, so $R[x]$ is countable. Its fraction field $R(x)$ is a quotient of $R[x]times R[x]$, hence countable.



    On the other hand $R((x))$ contains "$0,1((x))$", hence has cardinality at least $2^aleph_0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

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      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

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      active

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      5












      $begingroup$

      HINT: Write $f_2(x)$ in the form $x^rg(x)$, where $g$ has a non-zero constant term. Then $g(x)$ has an inverse in $R[[x]]$.



      An easy induction shows that its coefficients can be calculated recursively: just start calculating! For instance, if $g(x)=a_0+a_1x+ldots+a_mx^m$, and the inverse is to be $h(x)=sum_kge 0b_kx^k$, it’s clear that you want $b_0=a_0^-1$. Then the first degree term in $g(x)h(x)$ must be $$(a_0b_1+a_1b_0)x=(a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1)x;,$$



      so $a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1=0$, and you can solve for $b_1$. It’s easy to prove that this can be continued recursively.



      And from there you’re pretty much home free.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:01







      • 2




        $begingroup$
        @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:05











      • $begingroup$
        Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:08










      • $begingroup$
        @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:09











      • $begingroup$
        I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:16















      5












      $begingroup$

      HINT: Write $f_2(x)$ in the form $x^rg(x)$, where $g$ has a non-zero constant term. Then $g(x)$ has an inverse in $R[[x]]$.



      An easy induction shows that its coefficients can be calculated recursively: just start calculating! For instance, if $g(x)=a_0+a_1x+ldots+a_mx^m$, and the inverse is to be $h(x)=sum_kge 0b_kx^k$, it’s clear that you want $b_0=a_0^-1$. Then the first degree term in $g(x)h(x)$ must be $$(a_0b_1+a_1b_0)x=(a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1)x;,$$



      so $a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1=0$, and you can solve for $b_1$. It’s easy to prove that this can be continued recursively.



      And from there you’re pretty much home free.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:01







      • 2




        $begingroup$
        @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:05











      • $begingroup$
        Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:08










      • $begingroup$
        @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:09











      • $begingroup$
        I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:16













      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$

      HINT: Write $f_2(x)$ in the form $x^rg(x)$, where $g$ has a non-zero constant term. Then $g(x)$ has an inverse in $R[[x]]$.



      An easy induction shows that its coefficients can be calculated recursively: just start calculating! For instance, if $g(x)=a_0+a_1x+ldots+a_mx^m$, and the inverse is to be $h(x)=sum_kge 0b_kx^k$, it’s clear that you want $b_0=a_0^-1$. Then the first degree term in $g(x)h(x)$ must be $$(a_0b_1+a_1b_0)x=(a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1)x;,$$



      so $a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1=0$, and you can solve for $b_1$. It’s easy to prove that this can be continued recursively.



      And from there you’re pretty much home free.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      HINT: Write $f_2(x)$ in the form $x^rg(x)$, where $g$ has a non-zero constant term. Then $g(x)$ has an inverse in $R[[x]]$.



      An easy induction shows that its coefficients can be calculated recursively: just start calculating! For instance, if $g(x)=a_0+a_1x+ldots+a_mx^m$, and the inverse is to be $h(x)=sum_kge 0b_kx^k$, it’s clear that you want $b_0=a_0^-1$. Then the first degree term in $g(x)h(x)$ must be $$(a_0b_1+a_1b_0)x=(a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1)x;,$$



      so $a_0b_1+a_0^-1a_1=0$, and you can solve for $b_1$. It’s easy to prove that this can be continued recursively.



      And from there you’re pretty much home free.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Nov 3 '12 at 20:51

























      answered Nov 3 '12 at 20:46









      Brian M. ScottBrian M. Scott

      460k40516917




      460k40516917











      • $begingroup$
        Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:01







      • 2




        $begingroup$
        @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:05











      • $begingroup$
        Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:08










      • $begingroup$
        @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:09











      • $begingroup$
        I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:16
















      • $begingroup$
        Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:01







      • 2




        $begingroup$
        @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:05











      • $begingroup$
        Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:08










      • $begingroup$
        @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
        $endgroup$
        – Brian M. Scott
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:09











      • $begingroup$
        I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
        $endgroup$
        – Nizbel99
        Nov 3 '12 at 21:16















      $begingroup$
      Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:01





      $begingroup$
      Hmm, I think I understand it now. So writing $f$ as $f_1(x) / x^rg(x)$ gives: $x^-rf_1(x)/(sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r)$. Then using the formula provided for the inverse, $sum_j=0^m-rb_j+rx^j+r$ becomes $sum_k=0^m-rc_kx^k$, where $c_k = -1/a_0 sum_i=1^m-ra_ib_m-r-i$. Then multiplying this gives us the desired formal Laurent series, right?
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:01





      2




      2




      $begingroup$
      @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
      $endgroup$
      – Brian M. Scott
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:05





      $begingroup$
      @user43552: Yes, though you don’t really need to go into all of the gruesome detail: it’s enough to know that the formal power series $h=g^-1$ exists, since clearly $fhin R[[x]]$, and then the factor of $x^-r$ gets you your Laurent series.
      $endgroup$
      – Brian M. Scott
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:05













      $begingroup$
      Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:08




      $begingroup$
      Okay. I wrote out the details here just to make sure that I understood the argument properly. :) Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:08












      $begingroup$
      @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
      $endgroup$
      – Brian M. Scott
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:09





      $begingroup$
      @user43552: What extra coefficients? The inverse $h(x)$ may well have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. (And you’re welcome!)
      $endgroup$
      – Brian M. Scott
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:09













      $begingroup$
      I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:16




      $begingroup$
      I'm a little confused as to why the inverse is guaranteed to have infinitely many non-zero coefficients. I can see why this would be the case for a formal power series with infinitely many non-zero coefficients, but not necessarily just a polynomial (as in the case of rational functions).
      $endgroup$
      – Nizbel99
      Nov 3 '12 at 21:16











      5












      $begingroup$

      In case $R$ is finite or countable, the rational-function field is countable, while the Laurent-series field is uncountable.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        5












        $begingroup$

        In case $R$ is finite or countable, the rational-function field is countable, while the Laurent-series field is uncountable.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          In case $R$ is finite or countable, the rational-function field is countable, while the Laurent-series field is uncountable.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          In case $R$ is finite or countable, the rational-function field is countable, while the Laurent-series field is uncountable.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 3 '12 at 22:51









          LubinLubin

          45.4k44688




          45.4k44688





















              3





              +100







              $begingroup$

              To show that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, we first need to ignore the "is". Using more precision, I'd prefer to say that $R(x)$ is canonically isomorphic to a proper subring of $R((X))$.



              First part: subset



              We have a canonical and straightforward map from the ring $R[x]$ of polynomial to the ring $R((X))$ fo formal Laurent series (this does not even require $R$ to be a field) and accordingly identify polynomials with their corresponding power series.
              To extend this map to $R(x)$ we need to find, for every non-zero polynomial $fin R[x]$, a series $uin R((x))$ such that $fcdot u=1$.
              First consider the case that $f$ has constant term $1$. Then we can define $u_i$, $iinBbb N$, recursively such that for all $n$
              $$tag1 f(x)cdot sum_i=0^nu_ix^iin 1+x^nR[x]$$
              Indeed, we can just let $u_0=1$ and then recursively let $u_n$ be $-1$ times the coefficient of $x^n$ in the polynomial $f(x)cdotsum_i=0^n-1u_ix^i$.
              We obtain a power series $u(x)$ with $f(x)u(x)=1$ as desired.



              Now consider general $fne 0$. Then it can be written as $acdot x^kcdot hat f$ where $ain Rsetminus 0$, $kin Bbb N_0$, $hat f$ is a polynomial with constant term $1$.
              As just seen, there is a power series $hat u$ with $hat fhat u=1$. Then $u:=a^-1x^-khat u$ is a Laurent series with $fu=1$, as desired. (Here is the only place where we use that $R$ is a field: We need to find $a^-1$).



              Remark: Actually, it suffices to know that $R((x))$ is itself a field; which by itself can be proved by finding a multiplicative inverse recursively (almost) precisely as above.



              Second part: proper



              It suffices to exhibit a single formal Laurent series that cannot be written as quotient of polynomials.
              Consider
              $$ u(x)=sum_k=0^infty x^k^2 $$
              and assume that $u=frac fg$ with $gne 0$, say $g(x)=sum_j=0^d a_jx^j$ with $a_dne 0$.
              Pick $mge maxd,1$.
              Then in multiplying $u(x)g(x)$ we see that the coefficient of $x^m^2+d$ equals $a_d$ because $deg(x^kg)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1mid x^kg$ for $k>m$. Hence $ug$ has infinitely many nonzero coefficients and is not a polynomial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 7 '16 at 14:18










              • $begingroup$
                I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
                $endgroup$
                – rschwieb
                Apr 7 '16 at 16:40











              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
                $endgroup$
                – DonAntonio
                Apr 8 '16 at 14:07










              • $begingroup$
                Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
                $endgroup$
                – Torsten Schoeneberg
                Dec 19 '17 at 17:59
















              3





              +100







              $begingroup$

              To show that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, we first need to ignore the "is". Using more precision, I'd prefer to say that $R(x)$ is canonically isomorphic to a proper subring of $R((X))$.



              First part: subset



              We have a canonical and straightforward map from the ring $R[x]$ of polynomial to the ring $R((X))$ fo formal Laurent series (this does not even require $R$ to be a field) and accordingly identify polynomials with their corresponding power series.
              To extend this map to $R(x)$ we need to find, for every non-zero polynomial $fin R[x]$, a series $uin R((x))$ such that $fcdot u=1$.
              First consider the case that $f$ has constant term $1$. Then we can define $u_i$, $iinBbb N$, recursively such that for all $n$
              $$tag1 f(x)cdot sum_i=0^nu_ix^iin 1+x^nR[x]$$
              Indeed, we can just let $u_0=1$ and then recursively let $u_n$ be $-1$ times the coefficient of $x^n$ in the polynomial $f(x)cdotsum_i=0^n-1u_ix^i$.
              We obtain a power series $u(x)$ with $f(x)u(x)=1$ as desired.



              Now consider general $fne 0$. Then it can be written as $acdot x^kcdot hat f$ where $ain Rsetminus 0$, $kin Bbb N_0$, $hat f$ is a polynomial with constant term $1$.
              As just seen, there is a power series $hat u$ with $hat fhat u=1$. Then $u:=a^-1x^-khat u$ is a Laurent series with $fu=1$, as desired. (Here is the only place where we use that $R$ is a field: We need to find $a^-1$).



              Remark: Actually, it suffices to know that $R((x))$ is itself a field; which by itself can be proved by finding a multiplicative inverse recursively (almost) precisely as above.



              Second part: proper



              It suffices to exhibit a single formal Laurent series that cannot be written as quotient of polynomials.
              Consider
              $$ u(x)=sum_k=0^infty x^k^2 $$
              and assume that $u=frac fg$ with $gne 0$, say $g(x)=sum_j=0^d a_jx^j$ with $a_dne 0$.
              Pick $mge maxd,1$.
              Then in multiplying $u(x)g(x)$ we see that the coefficient of $x^m^2+d$ equals $a_d$ because $deg(x^kg)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1mid x^kg$ for $k>m$. Hence $ug$ has infinitely many nonzero coefficients and is not a polynomial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 7 '16 at 14:18










              • $begingroup$
                I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
                $endgroup$
                – rschwieb
                Apr 7 '16 at 16:40











              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
                $endgroup$
                – DonAntonio
                Apr 8 '16 at 14:07










              • $begingroup$
                Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
                $endgroup$
                – Torsten Schoeneberg
                Dec 19 '17 at 17:59














              3





              +100







              3





              +100



              3




              +100



              $begingroup$

              To show that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, we first need to ignore the "is". Using more precision, I'd prefer to say that $R(x)$ is canonically isomorphic to a proper subring of $R((X))$.



              First part: subset



              We have a canonical and straightforward map from the ring $R[x]$ of polynomial to the ring $R((X))$ fo formal Laurent series (this does not even require $R$ to be a field) and accordingly identify polynomials with their corresponding power series.
              To extend this map to $R(x)$ we need to find, for every non-zero polynomial $fin R[x]$, a series $uin R((x))$ such that $fcdot u=1$.
              First consider the case that $f$ has constant term $1$. Then we can define $u_i$, $iinBbb N$, recursively such that for all $n$
              $$tag1 f(x)cdot sum_i=0^nu_ix^iin 1+x^nR[x]$$
              Indeed, we can just let $u_0=1$ and then recursively let $u_n$ be $-1$ times the coefficient of $x^n$ in the polynomial $f(x)cdotsum_i=0^n-1u_ix^i$.
              We obtain a power series $u(x)$ with $f(x)u(x)=1$ as desired.



              Now consider general $fne 0$. Then it can be written as $acdot x^kcdot hat f$ where $ain Rsetminus 0$, $kin Bbb N_0$, $hat f$ is a polynomial with constant term $1$.
              As just seen, there is a power series $hat u$ with $hat fhat u=1$. Then $u:=a^-1x^-khat u$ is a Laurent series with $fu=1$, as desired. (Here is the only place where we use that $R$ is a field: We need to find $a^-1$).



              Remark: Actually, it suffices to know that $R((x))$ is itself a field; which by itself can be proved by finding a multiplicative inverse recursively (almost) precisely as above.



              Second part: proper



              It suffices to exhibit a single formal Laurent series that cannot be written as quotient of polynomials.
              Consider
              $$ u(x)=sum_k=0^infty x^k^2 $$
              and assume that $u=frac fg$ with $gne 0$, say $g(x)=sum_j=0^d a_jx^j$ with $a_dne 0$.
              Pick $mge maxd,1$.
              Then in multiplying $u(x)g(x)$ we see that the coefficient of $x^m^2+d$ equals $a_d$ because $deg(x^kg)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1mid x^kg$ for $k>m$. Hence $ug$ has infinitely many nonzero coefficients and is not a polynomial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              To show that $R(x)$ is a proper subset of $R((x))$, we first need to ignore the "is". Using more precision, I'd prefer to say that $R(x)$ is canonically isomorphic to a proper subring of $R((X))$.



              First part: subset



              We have a canonical and straightforward map from the ring $R[x]$ of polynomial to the ring $R((X))$ fo formal Laurent series (this does not even require $R$ to be a field) and accordingly identify polynomials with their corresponding power series.
              To extend this map to $R(x)$ we need to find, for every non-zero polynomial $fin R[x]$, a series $uin R((x))$ such that $fcdot u=1$.
              First consider the case that $f$ has constant term $1$. Then we can define $u_i$, $iinBbb N$, recursively such that for all $n$
              $$tag1 f(x)cdot sum_i=0^nu_ix^iin 1+x^nR[x]$$
              Indeed, we can just let $u_0=1$ and then recursively let $u_n$ be $-1$ times the coefficient of $x^n$ in the polynomial $f(x)cdotsum_i=0^n-1u_ix^i$.
              We obtain a power series $u(x)$ with $f(x)u(x)=1$ as desired.



              Now consider general $fne 0$. Then it can be written as $acdot x^kcdot hat f$ where $ain Rsetminus 0$, $kin Bbb N_0$, $hat f$ is a polynomial with constant term $1$.
              As just seen, there is a power series $hat u$ with $hat fhat u=1$. Then $u:=a^-1x^-khat u$ is a Laurent series with $fu=1$, as desired. (Here is the only place where we use that $R$ is a field: We need to find $a^-1$).



              Remark: Actually, it suffices to know that $R((x))$ is itself a field; which by itself can be proved by finding a multiplicative inverse recursively (almost) precisely as above.



              Second part: proper



              It suffices to exhibit a single formal Laurent series that cannot be written as quotient of polynomials.
              Consider
              $$ u(x)=sum_k=0^infty x^k^2 $$
              and assume that $u=frac fg$ with $gne 0$, say $g(x)=sum_j=0^d a_jx^j$ with $a_dne 0$.
              Pick $mge maxd,1$.
              Then in multiplying $u(x)g(x)$ we see that the coefficient of $x^m^2+d$ equals $a_d$ because $deg(x^kg)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1mid x^kg$ for $k>m$. Hence $ug$ has infinitely many nonzero coefficients and is not a polynomial.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Apr 7 '16 at 14:16









              Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

              283k23273508




              283k23273508











              • $begingroup$
                I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 7 '16 at 14:18










              • $begingroup$
                I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
                $endgroup$
                – rschwieb
                Apr 7 '16 at 16:40











              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
                $endgroup$
                – DonAntonio
                Apr 8 '16 at 14:07










              • $begingroup$
                Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
                $endgroup$
                – Torsten Schoeneberg
                Dec 19 '17 at 17:59

















              • $begingroup$
                I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 7 '16 at 14:18










              • $begingroup$
                I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
                $endgroup$
                – rschwieb
                Apr 7 '16 at 16:40











              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
                $endgroup$
                – DonAntonio
                Apr 8 '16 at 14:07










              • $begingroup$
                Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
                $endgroup$
                – Torsten Schoeneberg
                Dec 19 '17 at 17:59
















              $begingroup$
              I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 7 '16 at 14:18




              $begingroup$
              I'm a bit unsure why the years-old answers were deemed to show not enough detail, but here goes another summary of the proof, this time including also the part about "proper".
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 7 '16 at 14:18












              $begingroup$
              I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
              $endgroup$
              – rschwieb
              Apr 7 '16 at 16:40





              $begingroup$
              I think it was precisely for the reason of the proper containment, but you can click through the linked question to see for yourself the comments by the user which prompted me. Regards
              $endgroup$
              – rschwieb
              Apr 7 '16 at 16:40













              $begingroup$
              @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Apr 8 '16 at 14:07




              $begingroup$
              @HagenvonEitzen Thank you very much. Excellent, as usual. I already had the first part, and your second part is crystal clear. +1
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Apr 8 '16 at 14:07












              $begingroup$
              Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
              $endgroup$
              – Torsten Schoeneberg
              Dec 19 '17 at 17:59





              $begingroup$
              Don't you want "because $deg(x^k^2g)<m^2+d$ for $k<m$ and $x^m^2+d+1 | x^k^2g$ for $k >m$" in the penultimate sentence?
              $endgroup$
              – Torsten Schoeneberg
              Dec 19 '17 at 17:59












              0












              $begingroup$

              Hint $rmdisplaystylequad 1: =: (a-xf)(b-xg) Rightarrow ab=1$
              $$Rightarrow displaystylermfrac1b-xf = fraca1-axf = a:(1+axf+(axf)^2+(axf)^3+:cdots:)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$








              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
                $endgroup$
                – Nizbel99
                Nov 3 '12 at 20:43















              0












              $begingroup$

              Hint $rmdisplaystylequad 1: =: (a-xf)(b-xg) Rightarrow ab=1$
              $$Rightarrow displaystylermfrac1b-xf = fraca1-axf = a:(1+axf+(axf)^2+(axf)^3+:cdots:)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$








              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
                $endgroup$
                – Nizbel99
                Nov 3 '12 at 20:43













              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              Hint $rmdisplaystylequad 1: =: (a-xf)(b-xg) Rightarrow ab=1$
              $$Rightarrow displaystylermfrac1b-xf = fraca1-axf = a:(1+axf+(axf)^2+(axf)^3+:cdots:)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Hint $rmdisplaystylequad 1: =: (a-xf)(b-xg) Rightarrow ab=1$
              $$Rightarrow displaystylermfrac1b-xf = fraca1-axf = a:(1+axf+(axf)^2+(axf)^3+:cdots:)$$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 3 '12 at 20:32









              Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

              213k29196654




              213k29196654







              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
                $endgroup$
                – Nizbel99
                Nov 3 '12 at 20:43












              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
                $endgroup$
                – Nizbel99
                Nov 3 '12 at 20:43







              2




              2




              $begingroup$
              Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
              $endgroup$
              – Nizbel99
              Nov 3 '12 at 20:43




              $begingroup$
              Could you explain why this implication/equality follows? I'm afraid that I don't see it =(
              $endgroup$
              – Nizbel99
              Nov 3 '12 at 20:43











              0












              $begingroup$

              If your field $R$ is countable, if I am not mistaken, another possible argument is a cardinality argument, probbably (?) under the Axiom of Choice though :



              $R[x]$ can be viewed as $bigcup_ninmathbf N R^n$, a countable union of countable sets, so $R[x]$ is countable. Its fraction field $R(x)$ is a quotient of $R[x]times R[x]$, hence countable.



              On the other hand $R((x))$ contains "$0,1((x))$", hence has cardinality at least $2^aleph_0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                If your field $R$ is countable, if I am not mistaken, another possible argument is a cardinality argument, probbably (?) under the Axiom of Choice though :



                $R[x]$ can be viewed as $bigcup_ninmathbf N R^n$, a countable union of countable sets, so $R[x]$ is countable. Its fraction field $R(x)$ is a quotient of $R[x]times R[x]$, hence countable.



                On the other hand $R((x))$ contains "$0,1((x))$", hence has cardinality at least $2^aleph_0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  If your field $R$ is countable, if I am not mistaken, another possible argument is a cardinality argument, probbably (?) under the Axiom of Choice though :



                  $R[x]$ can be viewed as $bigcup_ninmathbf N R^n$, a countable union of countable sets, so $R[x]$ is countable. Its fraction field $R(x)$ is a quotient of $R[x]times R[x]$, hence countable.



                  On the other hand $R((x))$ contains "$0,1((x))$", hence has cardinality at least $2^aleph_0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  If your field $R$ is countable, if I am not mistaken, another possible argument is a cardinality argument, probbably (?) under the Axiom of Choice though :



                  $R[x]$ can be viewed as $bigcup_ninmathbf N R^n$, a countable union of countable sets, so $R[x]$ is countable. Its fraction field $R(x)$ is a quotient of $R[x]times R[x]$, hence countable.



                  On the other hand $R((x))$ contains "$0,1((x))$", hence has cardinality at least $2^aleph_0$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 28 at 20:02

























                  answered Mar 28 at 19:50









                  DrikeDrike

                  367112




                  367112



























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