Expected number of tries to choose x unique valuesGiven a randomness source with min-entropy $k$, what is the expected number of samples without repetitions?Simulate random sampling with replacementExpected Time for n Independent Prisoners to EscapeSampling demonstration using combinatoricsWhat is the average number of random selections it would take to have picked every element of a set and the size of that set, n?Probability of repeated sampling from random draws with replacementAverage tries needed to find the right box (Amount of boxes declining)Expected number of wrong seats on planeWhy Sampling without replacement gives better CI performance?Expected number of flips till equal heads and tails

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Expected number of tries to choose x unique values


Given a randomness source with min-entropy $k$, what is the expected number of samples without repetitions?Simulate random sampling with replacementExpected Time for n Independent Prisoners to EscapeSampling demonstration using combinatoricsWhat is the average number of random selections it would take to have picked every element of a set and the size of that set, n?Probability of repeated sampling from random draws with replacementAverage tries needed to find the right box (Amount of boxes declining)Expected number of wrong seats on planeWhy Sampling without replacement gives better CI performance?Expected number of flips till equal heads and tails













5












$begingroup$


it's been a long time since I've dealt with probability so I thought I would ask here. I'm sampling elements independently and uniformly and with repetition from a population. Given that the population is of size n, how many tries (in expectation) would it take me to gather x unique elements?



Thank you :)










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




user3767096 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    5












    $begingroup$


    it's been a long time since I've dealt with probability so I thought I would ask here. I'm sampling elements independently and uniformly and with repetition from a population. Given that the population is of size n, how many tries (in expectation) would it take me to gather x unique elements?



    Thank you :)










    share|cite|improve this question







    New contributor




    user3767096 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$


      it's been a long time since I've dealt with probability so I thought I would ask here. I'm sampling elements independently and uniformly and with repetition from a population. Given that the population is of size n, how many tries (in expectation) would it take me to gather x unique elements?



      Thank you :)










      share|cite|improve this question







      New contributor




      user3767096 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      it's been a long time since I've dealt with probability so I thought I would ask here. I'm sampling elements independently and uniformly and with repetition from a population. Given that the population is of size n, how many tries (in expectation) would it take me to gather x unique elements?



      Thank you :)







      probability expected-value sampling bootstrap-sampling






      share|cite|improve this question







      New contributor




      user3767096 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question







      New contributor




      user3767096 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question






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      asked Mar 28 at 20:52









      user3767096user3767096

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      261




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      New contributor





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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          If we have $n$ things we are choosing from, see that we always have $1$ unique element after the first draw. From here, we now are dealing with a Geometric Distribution with probability of success being $dfracn-1n$. The expected number of tries here is $dfracnn-1$. Thus the expected number of draws until you get $2$ unique elements from a pool of size $n$ is $$E(1)+E(2) = 1+dfracnn-1$$



          Where $E(m) = dfracnn-m+1$ is the expected number of draws after finding the $(m-1)^th$ unique element until you've successfully found the $m^th$ unique element. We take $E(1) = dfracnn-1+1 = 1$ to be the expected number of draws until the first unique element is found, which is just the first draw.



          This pattern will generalize, with the expected value of draws until you have $x le n$ unique elements is $$sum_i=1^x E(i) = E(1)+E(2)+dots+E(x)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            If you have already collected $k$ unique items, the probability that the next item drawn will be different is $n-kover n.$ We have a geometric distribution, so the expected number of draws until we get a different item is $nover n-k.$ The expected number of draws until we get $x$ different items is $$sum_k=0^x-1nover n-k=nsum_k=0^x-11over n-k$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
              $endgroup$
              – WaveX
              Mar 28 at 21:33










            • $begingroup$
              @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
              $endgroup$
              – saulspatz
              Mar 29 at 13:08


















            0












            $begingroup$

            Not 100% sure this is the right solution, but I think you basically have to use a sequence of geometric random variables (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution)



            So let's suppose $n$ = 10. If $x = 1$, then we are interested in the number of trials to draw one unique value. Hopefully we don't need to demonstrate that you only need one trial to do this.



            Now, if $x = 2$, then we need the number of trials to draw one unique value ($y_1$), and then the number of trials to draw another unique value $(y_2)$. The first success happens on the first trial with probability 1, and then the probability that it takes $k$ more trials to get the second success is given by $P(y_2 = k) = (1 - 9/10)^k(9/10)$, since we will draw a second unique value with probability 9/10.



            Notice that each trial is independent here, and the only thing that changes from trial to trial is the success probability, is $1$ for the first trial, $(n-1)/n$ for all trials until we get our second success, and so on. So basically we have $x$ geometric random variables here, and we want to find the expectation of their sum.



            For $i in 1, dots, x$, let $y_i$ denote the event that we have drawn a unique value. Because $y_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with success probability $p_i = (n-i+1)/n$, we have



            beginalign
            E[textNumber of trials] &= sum_i = 1^x E[y_i]\
            &= sum_i = 1^xfrac1p_i\
            &= sum_i = 1^xfracnn-i+1
            endalign






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
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              active

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              3 Answers
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              3












              $begingroup$

              If we have $n$ things we are choosing from, see that we always have $1$ unique element after the first draw. From here, we now are dealing with a Geometric Distribution with probability of success being $dfracn-1n$. The expected number of tries here is $dfracnn-1$. Thus the expected number of draws until you get $2$ unique elements from a pool of size $n$ is $$E(1)+E(2) = 1+dfracnn-1$$



              Where $E(m) = dfracnn-m+1$ is the expected number of draws after finding the $(m-1)^th$ unique element until you've successfully found the $m^th$ unique element. We take $E(1) = dfracnn-1+1 = 1$ to be the expected number of draws until the first unique element is found, which is just the first draw.



              This pattern will generalize, with the expected value of draws until you have $x le n$ unique elements is $$sum_i=1^x E(i) = E(1)+E(2)+dots+E(x)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                3












                $begingroup$

                If we have $n$ things we are choosing from, see that we always have $1$ unique element after the first draw. From here, we now are dealing with a Geometric Distribution with probability of success being $dfracn-1n$. The expected number of tries here is $dfracnn-1$. Thus the expected number of draws until you get $2$ unique elements from a pool of size $n$ is $$E(1)+E(2) = 1+dfracnn-1$$



                Where $E(m) = dfracnn-m+1$ is the expected number of draws after finding the $(m-1)^th$ unique element until you've successfully found the $m^th$ unique element. We take $E(1) = dfracnn-1+1 = 1$ to be the expected number of draws until the first unique element is found, which is just the first draw.



                This pattern will generalize, with the expected value of draws until you have $x le n$ unique elements is $$sum_i=1^x E(i) = E(1)+E(2)+dots+E(x)$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  If we have $n$ things we are choosing from, see that we always have $1$ unique element after the first draw. From here, we now are dealing with a Geometric Distribution with probability of success being $dfracn-1n$. The expected number of tries here is $dfracnn-1$. Thus the expected number of draws until you get $2$ unique elements from a pool of size $n$ is $$E(1)+E(2) = 1+dfracnn-1$$



                  Where $E(m) = dfracnn-m+1$ is the expected number of draws after finding the $(m-1)^th$ unique element until you've successfully found the $m^th$ unique element. We take $E(1) = dfracnn-1+1 = 1$ to be the expected number of draws until the first unique element is found, which is just the first draw.



                  This pattern will generalize, with the expected value of draws until you have $x le n$ unique elements is $$sum_i=1^x E(i) = E(1)+E(2)+dots+E(x)$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  If we have $n$ things we are choosing from, see that we always have $1$ unique element after the first draw. From here, we now are dealing with a Geometric Distribution with probability of success being $dfracn-1n$. The expected number of tries here is $dfracnn-1$. Thus the expected number of draws until you get $2$ unique elements from a pool of size $n$ is $$E(1)+E(2) = 1+dfracnn-1$$



                  Where $E(m) = dfracnn-m+1$ is the expected number of draws after finding the $(m-1)^th$ unique element until you've successfully found the $m^th$ unique element. We take $E(1) = dfracnn-1+1 = 1$ to be the expected number of draws until the first unique element is found, which is just the first draw.



                  This pattern will generalize, with the expected value of draws until you have $x le n$ unique elements is $$sum_i=1^x E(i) = E(1)+E(2)+dots+E(x)$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 28 at 21:14









                  WaveXWaveX

                  2,8442822




                  2,8442822





















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      If you have already collected $k$ unique items, the probability that the next item drawn will be different is $n-kover n.$ We have a geometric distribution, so the expected number of draws until we get a different item is $nover n-k.$ The expected number of draws until we get $x$ different items is $$sum_k=0^x-1nover n-k=nsum_k=0^x-11over n-k$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                        $endgroup$
                        – WaveX
                        Mar 28 at 21:33










                      • $begingroup$
                        @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                        $endgroup$
                        – saulspatz
                        Mar 29 at 13:08















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      If you have already collected $k$ unique items, the probability that the next item drawn will be different is $n-kover n.$ We have a geometric distribution, so the expected number of draws until we get a different item is $nover n-k.$ The expected number of draws until we get $x$ different items is $$sum_k=0^x-1nover n-k=nsum_k=0^x-11over n-k$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                        $endgroup$
                        – WaveX
                        Mar 28 at 21:33










                      • $begingroup$
                        @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                        $endgroup$
                        – saulspatz
                        Mar 29 at 13:08













                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      If you have already collected $k$ unique items, the probability that the next item drawn will be different is $n-kover n.$ We have a geometric distribution, so the expected number of draws until we get a different item is $nover n-k.$ The expected number of draws until we get $x$ different items is $$sum_k=0^x-1nover n-k=nsum_k=0^x-11over n-k$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      If you have already collected $k$ unique items, the probability that the next item drawn will be different is $n-kover n.$ We have a geometric distribution, so the expected number of draws until we get a different item is $nover n-k.$ The expected number of draws until we get $x$ different items is $$sum_k=0^x-1nover n-k=nsum_k=0^x-11over n-k$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Mar 29 at 13:05

























                      answered Mar 28 at 21:16









                      saulspatzsaulspatz

                      17.1k31435




                      17.1k31435







                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                        $endgroup$
                        – WaveX
                        Mar 28 at 21:33










                      • $begingroup$
                        @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                        $endgroup$
                        – saulspatz
                        Mar 29 at 13:08












                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                        $endgroup$
                        – WaveX
                        Mar 28 at 21:33










                      • $begingroup$
                        @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                        $endgroup$
                        – saulspatz
                        Mar 29 at 13:08







                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                      $endgroup$
                      – WaveX
                      Mar 28 at 21:33




                      $begingroup$
                      I think there's something wrong with what's on top: the $n-x+1$. If you plug in $x=1$, your sum simplifies to $$sum_k=0^nnover n-k$$ and we ultimately have a $fracnn-n$ term
                      $endgroup$
                      – WaveX
                      Mar 28 at 21:33












                      $begingroup$
                      @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                      $endgroup$
                      – saulspatz
                      Mar 29 at 13:08




                      $begingroup$
                      @WaveX I got it backwards somehow. Thanks.
                      $endgroup$
                      – saulspatz
                      Mar 29 at 13:08











                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Not 100% sure this is the right solution, but I think you basically have to use a sequence of geometric random variables (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution)



                      So let's suppose $n$ = 10. If $x = 1$, then we are interested in the number of trials to draw one unique value. Hopefully we don't need to demonstrate that you only need one trial to do this.



                      Now, if $x = 2$, then we need the number of trials to draw one unique value ($y_1$), and then the number of trials to draw another unique value $(y_2)$. The first success happens on the first trial with probability 1, and then the probability that it takes $k$ more trials to get the second success is given by $P(y_2 = k) = (1 - 9/10)^k(9/10)$, since we will draw a second unique value with probability 9/10.



                      Notice that each trial is independent here, and the only thing that changes from trial to trial is the success probability, is $1$ for the first trial, $(n-1)/n$ for all trials until we get our second success, and so on. So basically we have $x$ geometric random variables here, and we want to find the expectation of their sum.



                      For $i in 1, dots, x$, let $y_i$ denote the event that we have drawn a unique value. Because $y_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with success probability $p_i = (n-i+1)/n$, we have



                      beginalign
                      E[textNumber of trials] &= sum_i = 1^x E[y_i]\
                      &= sum_i = 1^xfrac1p_i\
                      &= sum_i = 1^xfracnn-i+1
                      endalign






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Not 100% sure this is the right solution, but I think you basically have to use a sequence of geometric random variables (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution)



                        So let's suppose $n$ = 10. If $x = 1$, then we are interested in the number of trials to draw one unique value. Hopefully we don't need to demonstrate that you only need one trial to do this.



                        Now, if $x = 2$, then we need the number of trials to draw one unique value ($y_1$), and then the number of trials to draw another unique value $(y_2)$. The first success happens on the first trial with probability 1, and then the probability that it takes $k$ more trials to get the second success is given by $P(y_2 = k) = (1 - 9/10)^k(9/10)$, since we will draw a second unique value with probability 9/10.



                        Notice that each trial is independent here, and the only thing that changes from trial to trial is the success probability, is $1$ for the first trial, $(n-1)/n$ for all trials until we get our second success, and so on. So basically we have $x$ geometric random variables here, and we want to find the expectation of their sum.



                        For $i in 1, dots, x$, let $y_i$ denote the event that we have drawn a unique value. Because $y_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with success probability $p_i = (n-i+1)/n$, we have



                        beginalign
                        E[textNumber of trials] &= sum_i = 1^x E[y_i]\
                        &= sum_i = 1^xfrac1p_i\
                        &= sum_i = 1^xfracnn-i+1
                        endalign






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Not 100% sure this is the right solution, but I think you basically have to use a sequence of geometric random variables (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution)



                          So let's suppose $n$ = 10. If $x = 1$, then we are interested in the number of trials to draw one unique value. Hopefully we don't need to demonstrate that you only need one trial to do this.



                          Now, if $x = 2$, then we need the number of trials to draw one unique value ($y_1$), and then the number of trials to draw another unique value $(y_2)$. The first success happens on the first trial with probability 1, and then the probability that it takes $k$ more trials to get the second success is given by $P(y_2 = k) = (1 - 9/10)^k(9/10)$, since we will draw a second unique value with probability 9/10.



                          Notice that each trial is independent here, and the only thing that changes from trial to trial is the success probability, is $1$ for the first trial, $(n-1)/n$ for all trials until we get our second success, and so on. So basically we have $x$ geometric random variables here, and we want to find the expectation of their sum.



                          For $i in 1, dots, x$, let $y_i$ denote the event that we have drawn a unique value. Because $y_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with success probability $p_i = (n-i+1)/n$, we have



                          beginalign
                          E[textNumber of trials] &= sum_i = 1^x E[y_i]\
                          &= sum_i = 1^xfrac1p_i\
                          &= sum_i = 1^xfracnn-i+1
                          endalign






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Not 100% sure this is the right solution, but I think you basically have to use a sequence of geometric random variables (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_distribution)



                          So let's suppose $n$ = 10. If $x = 1$, then we are interested in the number of trials to draw one unique value. Hopefully we don't need to demonstrate that you only need one trial to do this.



                          Now, if $x = 2$, then we need the number of trials to draw one unique value ($y_1$), and then the number of trials to draw another unique value $(y_2)$. The first success happens on the first trial with probability 1, and then the probability that it takes $k$ more trials to get the second success is given by $P(y_2 = k) = (1 - 9/10)^k(9/10)$, since we will draw a second unique value with probability 9/10.



                          Notice that each trial is independent here, and the only thing that changes from trial to trial is the success probability, is $1$ for the first trial, $(n-1)/n$ for all trials until we get our second success, and so on. So basically we have $x$ geometric random variables here, and we want to find the expectation of their sum.



                          For $i in 1, dots, x$, let $y_i$ denote the event that we have drawn a unique value. Because $y_i$ is a Bernoulli random variable with success probability $p_i = (n-i+1)/n$, we have



                          beginalign
                          E[textNumber of trials] &= sum_i = 1^x E[y_i]\
                          &= sum_i = 1^xfrac1p_i\
                          &= sum_i = 1^xfracnn-i+1
                          endalign







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 28 at 21:20









                          BayesicBayesic

                          1145




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