Difference between an isometric operator and a unitary operator on a Hilbert space The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)For complex matrices, if $langle Ax,xrangle=langle Bx,xrangle$ for all $x$, then $langle Ax,yrangle=langle Bx,yrangle$ for all $x$ and $y$?How can we prove that Unitary Transformation is isometric?A Finite Dimensional non-Unitary Isometry?Examples of non-unitary isometries on finite dimensional Hilbert spaces?Hilbert vs Inner Product SpaceFor a Hilbert space $mathcalH$, is every bounded linear operator on $mathcalH$ a linear combination of unitary operators?A operator is unitary if and only if it is a surjective isometryExistence of Unitary MapPolar decomposition of Bounded Normal Operator on Hilbert SpaceProving an isometric dilation of a non unitary operator on Hilbert space implies infinite dimensional space involving matricesunitary operator between two Hilbert subspacesDon't unitary operators have the same domain and codomain?What is the difference between a *surjective* unitary operator and a *bijective* unitary transformationsExamples of non-unitary isometries on finite dimensional Hilbert spaces?

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Difference between an isometric operator and a unitary operator on a Hilbert space



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)For complex matrices, if $langle Ax,xrangle=langle Bx,xrangle$ for all $x$, then $langle Ax,yrangle=langle Bx,yrangle$ for all $x$ and $y$?How can we prove that Unitary Transformation is isometric?A Finite Dimensional non-Unitary Isometry?Examples of non-unitary isometries on finite dimensional Hilbert spaces?Hilbert vs Inner Product SpaceFor a Hilbert space $mathcalH$, is every bounded linear operator on $mathcalH$ a linear combination of unitary operators?A operator is unitary if and only if it is a surjective isometryExistence of Unitary MapPolar decomposition of Bounded Normal Operator on Hilbert SpaceProving an isometric dilation of a non unitary operator on Hilbert space implies infinite dimensional space involving matricesunitary operator between two Hilbert subspacesDon't unitary operators have the same domain and codomain?What is the difference between a *surjective* unitary operator and a *bijective* unitary transformationsExamples of non-unitary isometries on finite dimensional Hilbert spaces?










23












$begingroup$


It seems that both isometric and unitary operators on a Hilbert space have the following property:



$U^*U = I$ ($U$ is an operator and $I$ is an identity operator, $^*$ is a binary operation.)



What is the difference between isometry and unitary? Which one is more general,
or are they the same? Are they isomorphic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Unitary is complex isometry.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuchang
    Aug 16 '14 at 14:43






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
    $endgroup$
    – sleeve chen
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:26










  • $begingroup$
    @sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas Meyer
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:35















23












$begingroup$


It seems that both isometric and unitary operators on a Hilbert space have the following property:



$U^*U = I$ ($U$ is an operator and $I$ is an identity operator, $^*$ is a binary operation.)



What is the difference between isometry and unitary? Which one is more general,
or are they the same? Are they isomorphic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Unitary is complex isometry.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuchang
    Aug 16 '14 at 14:43






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
    $endgroup$
    – sleeve chen
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:26










  • $begingroup$
    @sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas Meyer
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:35













23












23








23


14



$begingroup$


It seems that both isometric and unitary operators on a Hilbert space have the following property:



$U^*U = I$ ($U$ is an operator and $I$ is an identity operator, $^*$ is a binary operation.)



What is the difference between isometry and unitary? Which one is more general,
or are they the same? Are they isomorphic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




It seems that both isometric and unitary operators on a Hilbert space have the following property:



$U^*U = I$ ($U$ is an operator and $I$ is an identity operator, $^*$ is a binary operation.)



What is the difference between isometry and unitary? Which one is more general,
or are they the same? Are they isomorphic?







metric-spaces operator-theory hilbert-spaces inner-product-space






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 31 at 6:59







sleeve chen

















asked Aug 16 '14 at 14:39









sleeve chensleeve chen

3,18142256




3,18142256











  • $begingroup$
    Unitary is complex isometry.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuchang
    Aug 16 '14 at 14:43






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
    $endgroup$
    – sleeve chen
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:26










  • $begingroup$
    @sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas Meyer
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:35
















  • $begingroup$
    Unitary is complex isometry.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuchang
    Aug 16 '14 at 14:43






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
    $endgroup$
    – sleeve chen
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:26










  • $begingroup$
    @sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas Meyer
    Aug 16 '14 at 17:35















$begingroup$
Unitary is complex isometry.
$endgroup$
– Shuchang
Aug 16 '14 at 14:43




$begingroup$
Unitary is complex isometry.
$endgroup$
– Shuchang
Aug 16 '14 at 14:43




4




4




$begingroup$
I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
$endgroup$
– sleeve chen
Aug 16 '14 at 17:26




$begingroup$
I think unitary operator guarantees invertibility, i.e. U* = inv(U); however, isometric operator not.
$endgroup$
– sleeve chen
Aug 16 '14 at 17:26












$begingroup$
@sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Meyer
Aug 16 '14 at 17:35




$begingroup$
@sleeve: That's right. You succinctly answered your own question a few minutes before I posted.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Meyer
Aug 16 '14 at 17:35










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















30












$begingroup$

An isometric operator on a (complex) Hilbert space is a linear operator that preserves distances. That is, $T$ is an isometry if (by definition) $|Tx-Ty|=|x-y|$ for all $x$ and $y$ in the space. By linearity, this is equivalent to $|Tx|=|x|$ for all $x$. Because of the definition of the norm in terms of the inner product and the definition of adjoint operators, this is equivalent to $langle T^*Tx,xrangle=langle x,xrangle$ for all $x$. This implies that $T^*T=I$. Conversely, if $T^*T=I$, you can show that $T$ is an isometry (this direction is easier).



A unitary operator $U$ does indeed satisfy $U^*U=I$, and therefore in particular is an isometry. However, unitary operators must also be surjective (by definition), and are therefore isometric and invertible. They are the isometric isomorphisms on Hilbert space. One way to characterize them algebraically is to say that $U$ is a unitary if $U^*U=UU^*=I$.



On infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces (unlike in finite dimensional cases), there are always nonunitary isometries. For example, on $ell^2$, the operator sending $(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,ldots)$ to $(0,a_0,a_1,a_2,ldots)$ is a nonunitary isometry.



I'm not sure what you mean by "isomorphic". One notion of equivalence of linear transformations is similarity; but a surjective operator is never similar to a nonsurjective operator. A stronger notion is unitary equivalence, i.e., similarity induced by a unitary transformation (since these are the isometric isomorphisms of Hilbert space), which again cannot happen between a nonunitary isometry and a unitary operator (or between any nonunitary operator and a unitary operator).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Collinge
    Jan 10 '17 at 13:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
    $endgroup$
    – tparker
    Jul 7 '18 at 6:09












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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









30












$begingroup$

An isometric operator on a (complex) Hilbert space is a linear operator that preserves distances. That is, $T$ is an isometry if (by definition) $|Tx-Ty|=|x-y|$ for all $x$ and $y$ in the space. By linearity, this is equivalent to $|Tx|=|x|$ for all $x$. Because of the definition of the norm in terms of the inner product and the definition of adjoint operators, this is equivalent to $langle T^*Tx,xrangle=langle x,xrangle$ for all $x$. This implies that $T^*T=I$. Conversely, if $T^*T=I$, you can show that $T$ is an isometry (this direction is easier).



A unitary operator $U$ does indeed satisfy $U^*U=I$, and therefore in particular is an isometry. However, unitary operators must also be surjective (by definition), and are therefore isometric and invertible. They are the isometric isomorphisms on Hilbert space. One way to characterize them algebraically is to say that $U$ is a unitary if $U^*U=UU^*=I$.



On infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces (unlike in finite dimensional cases), there are always nonunitary isometries. For example, on $ell^2$, the operator sending $(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,ldots)$ to $(0,a_0,a_1,a_2,ldots)$ is a nonunitary isometry.



I'm not sure what you mean by "isomorphic". One notion of equivalence of linear transformations is similarity; but a surjective operator is never similar to a nonsurjective operator. A stronger notion is unitary equivalence, i.e., similarity induced by a unitary transformation (since these are the isometric isomorphisms of Hilbert space), which again cannot happen between a nonunitary isometry and a unitary operator (or between any nonunitary operator and a unitary operator).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Collinge
    Jan 10 '17 at 13:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
    $endgroup$
    – tparker
    Jul 7 '18 at 6:09
















30












$begingroup$

An isometric operator on a (complex) Hilbert space is a linear operator that preserves distances. That is, $T$ is an isometry if (by definition) $|Tx-Ty|=|x-y|$ for all $x$ and $y$ in the space. By linearity, this is equivalent to $|Tx|=|x|$ for all $x$. Because of the definition of the norm in terms of the inner product and the definition of adjoint operators, this is equivalent to $langle T^*Tx,xrangle=langle x,xrangle$ for all $x$. This implies that $T^*T=I$. Conversely, if $T^*T=I$, you can show that $T$ is an isometry (this direction is easier).



A unitary operator $U$ does indeed satisfy $U^*U=I$, and therefore in particular is an isometry. However, unitary operators must also be surjective (by definition), and are therefore isometric and invertible. They are the isometric isomorphisms on Hilbert space. One way to characterize them algebraically is to say that $U$ is a unitary if $U^*U=UU^*=I$.



On infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces (unlike in finite dimensional cases), there are always nonunitary isometries. For example, on $ell^2$, the operator sending $(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,ldots)$ to $(0,a_0,a_1,a_2,ldots)$ is a nonunitary isometry.



I'm not sure what you mean by "isomorphic". One notion of equivalence of linear transformations is similarity; but a surjective operator is never similar to a nonsurjective operator. A stronger notion is unitary equivalence, i.e., similarity induced by a unitary transformation (since these are the isometric isomorphisms of Hilbert space), which again cannot happen between a nonunitary isometry and a unitary operator (or between any nonunitary operator and a unitary operator).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Collinge
    Jan 10 '17 at 13:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
    $endgroup$
    – tparker
    Jul 7 '18 at 6:09














30












30








30





$begingroup$

An isometric operator on a (complex) Hilbert space is a linear operator that preserves distances. That is, $T$ is an isometry if (by definition) $|Tx-Ty|=|x-y|$ for all $x$ and $y$ in the space. By linearity, this is equivalent to $|Tx|=|x|$ for all $x$. Because of the definition of the norm in terms of the inner product and the definition of adjoint operators, this is equivalent to $langle T^*Tx,xrangle=langle x,xrangle$ for all $x$. This implies that $T^*T=I$. Conversely, if $T^*T=I$, you can show that $T$ is an isometry (this direction is easier).



A unitary operator $U$ does indeed satisfy $U^*U=I$, and therefore in particular is an isometry. However, unitary operators must also be surjective (by definition), and are therefore isometric and invertible. They are the isometric isomorphisms on Hilbert space. One way to characterize them algebraically is to say that $U$ is a unitary if $U^*U=UU^*=I$.



On infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces (unlike in finite dimensional cases), there are always nonunitary isometries. For example, on $ell^2$, the operator sending $(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,ldots)$ to $(0,a_0,a_1,a_2,ldots)$ is a nonunitary isometry.



I'm not sure what you mean by "isomorphic". One notion of equivalence of linear transformations is similarity; but a surjective operator is never similar to a nonsurjective operator. A stronger notion is unitary equivalence, i.e., similarity induced by a unitary transformation (since these are the isometric isomorphisms of Hilbert space), which again cannot happen between a nonunitary isometry and a unitary operator (or between any nonunitary operator and a unitary operator).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



An isometric operator on a (complex) Hilbert space is a linear operator that preserves distances. That is, $T$ is an isometry if (by definition) $|Tx-Ty|=|x-y|$ for all $x$ and $y$ in the space. By linearity, this is equivalent to $|Tx|=|x|$ for all $x$. Because of the definition of the norm in terms of the inner product and the definition of adjoint operators, this is equivalent to $langle T^*Tx,xrangle=langle x,xrangle$ for all $x$. This implies that $T^*T=I$. Conversely, if $T^*T=I$, you can show that $T$ is an isometry (this direction is easier).



A unitary operator $U$ does indeed satisfy $U^*U=I$, and therefore in particular is an isometry. However, unitary operators must also be surjective (by definition), and are therefore isometric and invertible. They are the isometric isomorphisms on Hilbert space. One way to characterize them algebraically is to say that $U$ is a unitary if $U^*U=UU^*=I$.



On infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces (unlike in finite dimensional cases), there are always nonunitary isometries. For example, on $ell^2$, the operator sending $(a_0,a_1,a_2,a_3,ldots)$ to $(0,a_0,a_1,a_2,ldots)$ is a nonunitary isometry.



I'm not sure what you mean by "isomorphic". One notion of equivalence of linear transformations is similarity; but a surjective operator is never similar to a nonsurjective operator. A stronger notion is unitary equivalence, i.e., similarity induced by a unitary transformation (since these are the isometric isomorphisms of Hilbert space), which again cannot happen between a nonunitary isometry and a unitary operator (or between any nonunitary operator and a unitary operator).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21









Community

1




1










answered Aug 16 '14 at 17:30









Jonas MeyerJonas Meyer

41.1k6149259




41.1k6149259







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Collinge
    Jan 10 '17 at 13:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
    $endgroup$
    – tparker
    Jul 7 '18 at 6:09













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Collinge
    Jan 10 '17 at 13:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
    $endgroup$
    – tparker
    Jul 7 '18 at 6:09








1




1




$begingroup$
I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
$endgroup$
– Tom Collinge
Jan 10 '17 at 13:39




$begingroup$
I cited your answer in my question here math.stackexchange.com/q/2091816. I'd appreciate your feedback.
$endgroup$
– Tom Collinge
Jan 10 '17 at 13:39




1




1




$begingroup$
Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
$endgroup$
– tparker
Jul 7 '18 at 6:09





$begingroup$
Interestingly, in the real case the argument in your first paragraph needs to be (slightly) more complicated: going from $⟨O^T O x, x⟩=⟨x, x⟩$ to $O^T O = I$ requires a stronger argument than in the complex case (e.g., using the fact that $O^T O$ is symmetric and therefore diagonalizable, and going into an eigenbasis).
$endgroup$
– tparker
Jul 7 '18 at 6:09


















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