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Why do we divide by $2^2$ for $(6, 6, 5, 5)$ to find the permutations? [closed]


What is the proof of permutations of similar objects?Why counting $C(n,r)$ needs to divide $k$?permutations and the binomial coefficientNumber of subset-permutations for a setWhy do we divide values to count permutations with repeated letters?How many permutations are there for the letters in the word “meеt”?Formula for counting distinct n- letter long array permutationsPermutations with Repetition Formulacircular r-permutations of nWhy do we divide Permutations to get to Combinations?













-2












$begingroup$


Why do we divide by $2^2$
and are we using the permutations formula?



$(6, 6, 5, 5)$



$frac4!2^2= 6$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as unclear what you're asking by anomaly, Andrei, John Omielan, Cesareo, YiFan Mar 30 at 1:03


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

















  • $begingroup$
    It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
    $endgroup$
    – Andrei
    Mar 29 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. F. Taussig
    Mar 29 at 20:57















-2












$begingroup$


Why do we divide by $2^2$
and are we using the permutations formula?



$(6, 6, 5, 5)$



$frac4!2^2= 6$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as unclear what you're asking by anomaly, Andrei, John Omielan, Cesareo, YiFan Mar 30 at 1:03


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

















  • $begingroup$
    It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
    $endgroup$
    – Andrei
    Mar 29 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. F. Taussig
    Mar 29 at 20:57













-2












-2








-2





$begingroup$


Why do we divide by $2^2$
and are we using the permutations formula?



$(6, 6, 5, 5)$



$frac4!2^2= 6$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Why do we divide by $2^2$
and are we using the permutations formula?



$(6, 6, 5, 5)$



$frac4!2^2= 6$







combinatorics permutations






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 29 at 20:55









N. F. Taussig

45.1k103358




45.1k103358










asked Mar 29 at 20:48









Ebrahim A HajiEbrahim A Haji

42




42




closed as unclear what you're asking by anomaly, Andrei, John Omielan, Cesareo, YiFan Mar 30 at 1:03


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









closed as unclear what you're asking by anomaly, Andrei, John Omielan, Cesareo, YiFan Mar 30 at 1:03


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • $begingroup$
    It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
    $endgroup$
    – Andrei
    Mar 29 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. F. Taussig
    Mar 29 at 20:57
















  • $begingroup$
    It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
    $endgroup$
    – Andrei
    Mar 29 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
    $endgroup$
    – N. F. Taussig
    Mar 29 at 20:57















$begingroup$
It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
$endgroup$
– Andrei
Mar 29 at 20:55




$begingroup$
It's completely unclear what is your final goal. What do you want to find? If you answer that, maybe we can help
$endgroup$
– Andrei
Mar 29 at 20:55












$begingroup$
You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
$endgroup$
– N. F. Taussig
Mar 29 at 20:57




$begingroup$
You should clarify that you wish to count the number of permutations of the sequence $(6, 6, 5, 5)$.
$endgroup$
– N. F. Taussig
Mar 29 at 20:57










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Rather than a "division by symmetry" argument, I find it far more convincing to avoid division entirely.



To count the number of arrangements of the digits $5,5,6,6$ you can count this directly by deciding in which two of the four available positions the $5$'s are occupying. This can be done in $binom42=6$ ways. The $6$'s will then occupy whatever spaces are left.



Even more generally, the number of ways of arranging $k_1$ copies of $1$, $k_2$ copies of $2$, on up to $k_n$ copies of $n$ where $k_1+k_2+dots+k_n = N$ can be counted direction using the multinomial coefficient $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n=fracN!k_1!k_2!cdots k_n!$ and this is seen to be equal to having chosen where the $1$'s are placed, multiplying by the number of ways of where the $2$'s are placed from those still available spots, etc... to give:



$$binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = binomNk_1binomN-k_1k_2binomN-k_1-k_2k_3cdotsbinomN-k_1-dots-k_n-1k_n$$



Of course, the algebra is made much simpler to just take note of the final result and use $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = fracN!k_1!k_2!dots k_n!$ directly.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    Because the four permutations
    $$
    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorblue5, colorred5)\
    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorblue5, colorred5)
    $$

    are considered to be the same.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      0












      $begingroup$

      The correct way to write it is
      $$
      frac4!2!2!
      $$



      The terms in denominator reflect the fact that permutation of identical elements does not matter. Since the number in numerator counts all permutations as if all the elements were distinct, it should be divided by numbers of all possible permutations in every group of identical elements (counted as if the group elements were distinct).



      For $(1,2,2,3,3,3)$ it would be
      $$
      frac 6!1!2!3!$$

      and so on.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



















        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        1












        $begingroup$

        Rather than a "division by symmetry" argument, I find it far more convincing to avoid division entirely.



        To count the number of arrangements of the digits $5,5,6,6$ you can count this directly by deciding in which two of the four available positions the $5$'s are occupying. This can be done in $binom42=6$ ways. The $6$'s will then occupy whatever spaces are left.



        Even more generally, the number of ways of arranging $k_1$ copies of $1$, $k_2$ copies of $2$, on up to $k_n$ copies of $n$ where $k_1+k_2+dots+k_n = N$ can be counted direction using the multinomial coefficient $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n=fracN!k_1!k_2!cdots k_n!$ and this is seen to be equal to having chosen where the $1$'s are placed, multiplying by the number of ways of where the $2$'s are placed from those still available spots, etc... to give:



        $$binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = binomNk_1binomN-k_1k_2binomN-k_1-k_2k_3cdotsbinomN-k_1-dots-k_n-1k_n$$



        Of course, the algebra is made much simpler to just take note of the final result and use $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = fracN!k_1!k_2!dots k_n!$ directly.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$

















          1












          $begingroup$

          Rather than a "division by symmetry" argument, I find it far more convincing to avoid division entirely.



          To count the number of arrangements of the digits $5,5,6,6$ you can count this directly by deciding in which two of the four available positions the $5$'s are occupying. This can be done in $binom42=6$ ways. The $6$'s will then occupy whatever spaces are left.



          Even more generally, the number of ways of arranging $k_1$ copies of $1$, $k_2$ copies of $2$, on up to $k_n$ copies of $n$ where $k_1+k_2+dots+k_n = N$ can be counted direction using the multinomial coefficient $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n=fracN!k_1!k_2!cdots k_n!$ and this is seen to be equal to having chosen where the $1$'s are placed, multiplying by the number of ways of where the $2$'s are placed from those still available spots, etc... to give:



          $$binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = binomNk_1binomN-k_1k_2binomN-k_1-k_2k_3cdotsbinomN-k_1-dots-k_n-1k_n$$



          Of course, the algebra is made much simpler to just take note of the final result and use $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = fracN!k_1!k_2!dots k_n!$ directly.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Rather than a "division by symmetry" argument, I find it far more convincing to avoid division entirely.



            To count the number of arrangements of the digits $5,5,6,6$ you can count this directly by deciding in which two of the four available positions the $5$'s are occupying. This can be done in $binom42=6$ ways. The $6$'s will then occupy whatever spaces are left.



            Even more generally, the number of ways of arranging $k_1$ copies of $1$, $k_2$ copies of $2$, on up to $k_n$ copies of $n$ where $k_1+k_2+dots+k_n = N$ can be counted direction using the multinomial coefficient $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n=fracN!k_1!k_2!cdots k_n!$ and this is seen to be equal to having chosen where the $1$'s are placed, multiplying by the number of ways of where the $2$'s are placed from those still available spots, etc... to give:



            $$binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = binomNk_1binomN-k_1k_2binomN-k_1-k_2k_3cdotsbinomN-k_1-dots-k_n-1k_n$$



            Of course, the algebra is made much simpler to just take note of the final result and use $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = fracN!k_1!k_2!dots k_n!$ directly.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Rather than a "division by symmetry" argument, I find it far more convincing to avoid division entirely.



            To count the number of arrangements of the digits $5,5,6,6$ you can count this directly by deciding in which two of the four available positions the $5$'s are occupying. This can be done in $binom42=6$ ways. The $6$'s will then occupy whatever spaces are left.



            Even more generally, the number of ways of arranging $k_1$ copies of $1$, $k_2$ copies of $2$, on up to $k_n$ copies of $n$ where $k_1+k_2+dots+k_n = N$ can be counted direction using the multinomial coefficient $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n=fracN!k_1!k_2!cdots k_n!$ and this is seen to be equal to having chosen where the $1$'s are placed, multiplying by the number of ways of where the $2$'s are placed from those still available spots, etc... to give:



            $$binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = binomNk_1binomN-k_1k_2binomN-k_1-k_2k_3cdotsbinomN-k_1-dots-k_n-1k_n$$



            Of course, the algebra is made much simpler to just take note of the final result and use $binomNk_1,k_2,dots,k_n = fracN!k_1!k_2!dots k_n!$ directly.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 29 at 21:14









            JMoravitzJMoravitz

            48.8k43988




            48.8k43988





















                0












                $begingroup$

                Because the four permutations
                $$
                (colorred6, colorblue6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                (colorred6, colorblue6, colorblue5, colorred5)\
                (colorblue6, colorred6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                (colorblue6, colorred6, colorblue5, colorred5)
                $$

                are considered to be the same.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  Because the four permutations
                  $$
                  (colorred6, colorblue6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                  (colorred6, colorblue6, colorblue5, colorred5)\
                  (colorblue6, colorred6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                  (colorblue6, colorred6, colorblue5, colorred5)
                  $$

                  are considered to be the same.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    Because the four permutations
                    $$
                    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorblue5, colorred5)\
                    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorblue5, colorred5)
                    $$

                    are considered to be the same.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Because the four permutations
                    $$
                    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                    (colorred6, colorblue6, colorblue5, colorred5)\
                    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorred5, colorblue5)\
                    (colorblue6, colorred6, colorblue5, colorred5)
                    $$

                    are considered to be the same.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Mar 29 at 20:57









                    ArthurArthur

                    122k7122211




                    122k7122211





















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        The correct way to write it is
                        $$
                        frac4!2!2!
                        $$



                        The terms in denominator reflect the fact that permutation of identical elements does not matter. Since the number in numerator counts all permutations as if all the elements were distinct, it should be divided by numbers of all possible permutations in every group of identical elements (counted as if the group elements were distinct).



                        For $(1,2,2,3,3,3)$ it would be
                        $$
                        frac 6!1!2!3!$$

                        and so on.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          The correct way to write it is
                          $$
                          frac4!2!2!
                          $$



                          The terms in denominator reflect the fact that permutation of identical elements does not matter. Since the number in numerator counts all permutations as if all the elements were distinct, it should be divided by numbers of all possible permutations in every group of identical elements (counted as if the group elements were distinct).



                          For $(1,2,2,3,3,3)$ it would be
                          $$
                          frac 6!1!2!3!$$

                          and so on.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            The correct way to write it is
                            $$
                            frac4!2!2!
                            $$



                            The terms in denominator reflect the fact that permutation of identical elements does not matter. Since the number in numerator counts all permutations as if all the elements were distinct, it should be divided by numbers of all possible permutations in every group of identical elements (counted as if the group elements were distinct).



                            For $(1,2,2,3,3,3)$ it would be
                            $$
                            frac 6!1!2!3!$$

                            and so on.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            The correct way to write it is
                            $$
                            frac4!2!2!
                            $$



                            The terms in denominator reflect the fact that permutation of identical elements does not matter. Since the number in numerator counts all permutations as if all the elements were distinct, it should be divided by numbers of all possible permutations in every group of identical elements (counted as if the group elements were distinct).



                            For $(1,2,2,3,3,3)$ it would be
                            $$
                            frac 6!1!2!3!$$

                            and so on.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Mar 29 at 21:49

























                            answered Mar 29 at 20:56









                            useruser

                            6,32411031




                            6,32411031













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