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How can I prove this inequality of the form $|f_1g_1-f_2g_2|leq|f_1-f_2|$?
Two inequalitiesHow to prove this matrix boundHow to prove this inequality without using Muirhead's inequality?Inequality with complex sineHow prove Reversing the Arithmetic mean – Geometric mean inequality?Prove that $sinh(cosh(x)) geq cosh(sinh(x))$Prove this inequality with best constant?Prove the inequality using AM-GM only.Problem with cosh and sinhHow prove this similar Hilbert inequality
$begingroup$
I am trying to prove this inequality:
$$
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c
-
frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)+cright|
leq
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32-frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32right|
$$
for all $x>0$ where $a,b,c>0$ are constants.
This could be more briefly expressed as:
$$left|fleft(a,xright)cdot gleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)cdot gleft(-a,xright)right|leq left|fleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)right|,$$
where
$$fleft(a,xright)=frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32, qquad gleft(a,xright)=fracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c.$$
After playing around with graphing software I am fairly convinced this inequality holds, but I can't figure out how to prove it. What makes it particularly tricky (to me) is that while $f(a,x)$ is increasing (in $x$), $g(a,x)$ is decreasing, so there is no general consistency as to which term (in the difference) is greater than the other.
Sorry if the inequality is wrong, or insanely difficult to show—I'm just wondering if there's an easy trick that I'm missing.
inequality
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to prove this inequality:
$$
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c
-
frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)+cright|
leq
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32-frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32right|
$$
for all $x>0$ where $a,b,c>0$ are constants.
This could be more briefly expressed as:
$$left|fleft(a,xright)cdot gleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)cdot gleft(-a,xright)right|leq left|fleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)right|,$$
where
$$fleft(a,xright)=frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32, qquad gleft(a,xright)=fracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c.$$
After playing around with graphing software I am fairly convinced this inequality holds, but I can't figure out how to prove it. What makes it particularly tricky (to me) is that while $f(a,x)$ is increasing (in $x$), $g(a,x)$ is decreasing, so there is no general consistency as to which term (in the difference) is greater than the other.
Sorry if the inequality is wrong, or insanely difficult to show—I'm just wondering if there's an easy trick that I'm missing.
inequality
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to prove this inequality:
$$
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c
-
frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)+cright|
leq
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32-frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32right|
$$
for all $x>0$ where $a,b,c>0$ are constants.
This could be more briefly expressed as:
$$left|fleft(a,xright)cdot gleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)cdot gleft(-a,xright)right|leq left|fleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)right|,$$
where
$$fleft(a,xright)=frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32, qquad gleft(a,xright)=fracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c.$$
After playing around with graphing software I am fairly convinced this inequality holds, but I can't figure out how to prove it. What makes it particularly tricky (to me) is that while $f(a,x)$ is increasing (in $x$), $g(a,x)$ is decreasing, so there is no general consistency as to which term (in the difference) is greater than the other.
Sorry if the inequality is wrong, or insanely difficult to show—I'm just wondering if there's an easy trick that I'm missing.
inequality
$endgroup$
I am trying to prove this inequality:
$$
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c
-
frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32cdotfracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x-aright)^2+bright)+cright|
leq
left|frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32-frac1left(left(x-aright)^2+bright)^frac32right|
$$
for all $x>0$ where $a,b,c>0$ are constants.
This could be more briefly expressed as:
$$left|fleft(a,xright)cdot gleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)cdot gleft(-a,xright)right|leq left|fleft(a,xright)-fleft(-a,xright)right|,$$
where
$$fleft(a,xright)=frac1left(left(x+aright)^2+bright)^frac32, qquad gleft(a,xright)=fracsinhleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)coshleft(sqrtleft(x+aright)^2+bright)+c.$$
After playing around with graphing software I am fairly convinced this inequality holds, but I can't figure out how to prove it. What makes it particularly tricky (to me) is that while $f(a,x)$ is increasing (in $x$), $g(a,x)$ is decreasing, so there is no general consistency as to which term (in the difference) is greater than the other.
Sorry if the inequality is wrong, or insanely difficult to show—I'm just wondering if there's an easy trick that I'm missing.
inequality
inequality
asked Mar 29 at 21:06
WillGWillG
495310
495310
$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15
$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15
$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Something like this
(which is a standard grouping technique)
might be a start.
Simplifying the notation somewhat,
you want to show that
$|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
leq |f(a)-f(-a)|,
$
We have
$beginarray\
|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
&=|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)+f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)|+|f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le |f(a)||g(a)-g(-a)|+|g(-a)||f(a)-f(-a)|\
endarray
$
In your case,
$|g| < 1$.
This might also hold
for $f$
depending on the values of
$a$ and $b$.
More analysis of
$f$ and $g$
might get useful results,
but I'll stop here.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Something like this
(which is a standard grouping technique)
might be a start.
Simplifying the notation somewhat,
you want to show that
$|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
leq |f(a)-f(-a)|,
$
We have
$beginarray\
|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
&=|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)+f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)|+|f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le |f(a)||g(a)-g(-a)|+|g(-a)||f(a)-f(-a)|\
endarray
$
In your case,
$|g| < 1$.
This might also hold
for $f$
depending on the values of
$a$ and $b$.
More analysis of
$f$ and $g$
might get useful results,
but I'll stop here.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Something like this
(which is a standard grouping technique)
might be a start.
Simplifying the notation somewhat,
you want to show that
$|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
leq |f(a)-f(-a)|,
$
We have
$beginarray\
|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
&=|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)+f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)|+|f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le |f(a)||g(a)-g(-a)|+|g(-a)||f(a)-f(-a)|\
endarray
$
In your case,
$|g| < 1$.
This might also hold
for $f$
depending on the values of
$a$ and $b$.
More analysis of
$f$ and $g$
might get useful results,
but I'll stop here.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Something like this
(which is a standard grouping technique)
might be a start.
Simplifying the notation somewhat,
you want to show that
$|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
leq |f(a)-f(-a)|,
$
We have
$beginarray\
|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
&=|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)+f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)|+|f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le |f(a)||g(a)-g(-a)|+|g(-a)||f(a)-f(-a)|\
endarray
$
In your case,
$|g| < 1$.
This might also hold
for $f$
depending on the values of
$a$ and $b$.
More analysis of
$f$ and $g$
might get useful results,
but I'll stop here.
$endgroup$
Something like this
(which is a standard grouping technique)
might be a start.
Simplifying the notation somewhat,
you want to show that
$|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
leq |f(a)-f(-a)|,
$
We have
$beginarray\
|f(a)g(a)-f(-a) g(-a)|
&=|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)+f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le|f(a)g(a)-f(a)g(-a)|+|f(a)g(-a)-f(-a) g(-a)|\
&le |f(a)||g(a)-g(-a)|+|g(-a)||f(a)-f(-a)|\
endarray
$
In your case,
$|g| < 1$.
This might also hold
for $f$
depending on the values of
$a$ and $b$.
More analysis of
$f$ and $g$
might get useful results,
but I'll stop here.
answered Mar 29 at 23:12
marty cohenmarty cohen
75k549130
75k549130
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Excellent. I'm not sure I can use this to prove my inequality, but I don't need to. My ultimate purpose is to use the dominated convergence theorem to move a limit inside an integral, and this will split the integral into two pieces that can be handled separately. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– WillG
Mar 30 at 0:16
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
$begingroup$
Glad to have helped. This sort of thing is the reason that I submit incomplete answers when I haven't completely solved the problem.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Mar 30 at 2:22
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
This might help. Replace sinh and cosh by exp. Good lick.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Mar 29 at 21:15