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Prove combinatorial inequality
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDoes this inequality involving differences between powers hold on a particular range?Prove a “simple” inequalityProve Bernoulli inequality if $h>-1$a log inequalityRamsey number inequality proofUnusual Combinatorial Identity (Alternating Sum of Binomial Products)Tao's proof on the Cauchy-Schwarz inequalityInequality with Sum of Binomial CoefficientsTriangle Inequality: use to prove convergence (psi function elliptic functions)Proving inequality involving radical
$begingroup$
I want to know when the following statement is true
$$
f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
$$
where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.
I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.
Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?
inequality binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I want to know when the following statement is true
$$
f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
$$
where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.
I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.
Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?
inequality binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I want to know when the following statement is true
$$
f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
$$
where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.
I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.
Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?
inequality binomial-coefficients
$endgroup$
I want to know when the following statement is true
$$
f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
$$
where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.
I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.
Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?
inequality binomial-coefficients
inequality binomial-coefficients
asked Mar 28 at 0:39
user1792605user1792605
606
606
add a comment |
add a comment |
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