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Prove combinatorial inequality



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDoes this inequality involving differences between powers hold on a particular range?Prove a “simple” inequalityProve Bernoulli inequality if $h>-1$a log inequalityRamsey number inequality proofUnusual Combinatorial Identity (Alternating Sum of Binomial Products)Tao's proof on the Cauchy-Schwarz inequalityInequality with Sum of Binomial CoefficientsTriangle Inequality: use to prove convergence (psi function elliptic functions)Proving inequality involving radical










1












$begingroup$


I want to know when the following statement is true



$$
f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
$$

where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.



I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.



Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    I want to know when the following statement is true



    $$
    f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
    $$

    where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.



    I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.



    Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      I want to know when the following statement is true



      $$
      f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
      $$

      where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.



      I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.



      Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I want to know when the following statement is true



      $$
      f(i)=binomN-i+1i leq binomN-(k-i)+1k-i = g(i),
      $$

      where $0 leq i leq k$ and $0 leq k leq N$ and $N, k$ are chosen beforehand and $i $ varies.



      I've got the following idea, when $i = k/2$ we clearly have equality. We have a symmetry of the equations that $f(k/2 - i) = g(k/2 + i)$. From plotting in Mathematica I get the idea that for $i leq k/2$ the inequality is indeed true, but proving it seems quite difficult.



      Are there any Binomial identities one can use for this?







      inequality binomial-coefficients






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 28 at 0:39









      user1792605user1792605

      606




      606




















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