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Proof of Completeness Theorem in Enderton's Logic, satisfiability of $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowLogical implication vs Tautological implicationShow that $Gamma cup neg phi$ is satisfiable if and only if $Gammanot models phi$Proving that if $Gamma cup gamma$ is inconsistent, then $Gammavdash neggamma$.Consistency Lemma in Lindenbaum's TheoremHow to prove tautologyIf $Sigma$ is finitely satisfiable, then either $Sigmacuptheta$ is finitely satisfiable or $Sigmacupnegtheta$ is finitely satisfiable.Use induction to show that a truth assignment on $GammacupLambda$ satisfies all theorem from $Gamma$Set of formulas sigma satisfiable iff no contradiction beta such that sigma implies betaA consistent set of formulas is satisfiable.Finitely satisfiable sets of formulas










3












$begingroup$


I'm reading the proof of the Completeness Theorem from Enderton's "A Mathematical Introduction to Logic". I'm having issues seeing how the following highlighted sentence actually holds (excerpt from page 137).




Let $Lambda$ be the set of logical axioms for the expanded language. Since $Gamma cup Theta$ is consistent, there is no formula $beta$ such that $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $neg beta$. (This is by Theorem 24B; the compactness theorem of sentential logic is used here.) Hence there is a truth assignment $v$ for the set of all prime formulas that satisfies $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$.




I have tried to reason "by contrapositive". That is, suppose a set of (sentential) formulas $Sigma$ is unsatisfiable. Then, vacuously, every truth assignment that satisfies $Sigma$ will also satisfy any formula at all. Hence $Sigma$ tautologically implies any formula. In particular, for any given formula $beta$, $Sigma$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $negbeta$.



Is my reasoning correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Mar 28 at 1:39
















3












$begingroup$


I'm reading the proof of the Completeness Theorem from Enderton's "A Mathematical Introduction to Logic". I'm having issues seeing how the following highlighted sentence actually holds (excerpt from page 137).




Let $Lambda$ be the set of logical axioms for the expanded language. Since $Gamma cup Theta$ is consistent, there is no formula $beta$ such that $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $neg beta$. (This is by Theorem 24B; the compactness theorem of sentential logic is used here.) Hence there is a truth assignment $v$ for the set of all prime formulas that satisfies $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$.




I have tried to reason "by contrapositive". That is, suppose a set of (sentential) formulas $Sigma$ is unsatisfiable. Then, vacuously, every truth assignment that satisfies $Sigma$ will also satisfy any formula at all. Hence $Sigma$ tautologically implies any formula. In particular, for any given formula $beta$, $Sigma$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $negbeta$.



Is my reasoning correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Mar 28 at 1:39














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I'm reading the proof of the Completeness Theorem from Enderton's "A Mathematical Introduction to Logic". I'm having issues seeing how the following highlighted sentence actually holds (excerpt from page 137).




Let $Lambda$ be the set of logical axioms for the expanded language. Since $Gamma cup Theta$ is consistent, there is no formula $beta$ such that $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $neg beta$. (This is by Theorem 24B; the compactness theorem of sentential logic is used here.) Hence there is a truth assignment $v$ for the set of all prime formulas that satisfies $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$.




I have tried to reason "by contrapositive". That is, suppose a set of (sentential) formulas $Sigma$ is unsatisfiable. Then, vacuously, every truth assignment that satisfies $Sigma$ will also satisfy any formula at all. Hence $Sigma$ tautologically implies any formula. In particular, for any given formula $beta$, $Sigma$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $negbeta$.



Is my reasoning correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm reading the proof of the Completeness Theorem from Enderton's "A Mathematical Introduction to Logic". I'm having issues seeing how the following highlighted sentence actually holds (excerpt from page 137).




Let $Lambda$ be the set of logical axioms for the expanded language. Since $Gamma cup Theta$ is consistent, there is no formula $beta$ such that $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $neg beta$. (This is by Theorem 24B; the compactness theorem of sentential logic is used here.) Hence there is a truth assignment $v$ for the set of all prime formulas that satisfies $Gamma cup Theta cup Lambda$.




I have tried to reason "by contrapositive". That is, suppose a set of (sentential) formulas $Sigma$ is unsatisfiable. Then, vacuously, every truth assignment that satisfies $Sigma$ will also satisfy any formula at all. Hence $Sigma$ tautologically implies any formula. In particular, for any given formula $beta$, $Sigma$ tautologically implies both $beta$ and $negbeta$.



Is my reasoning correct?







logic propositional-calculus






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 28 at 0:57









MuchToLearnMuchToLearn

1189




1189







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Mar 28 at 1:39













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Mar 28 at 1:39








1




1




$begingroup$
Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Mar 28 at 1:39





$begingroup$
Looks right to me. Remember it well, cause "consistent implies satisfiable" is used just as often, if not more than "valid implies provable".
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Mar 28 at 1:39











0






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