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If x and y are integers, can I rewrite x



The Next CEO of Stack Overflow$X+Y <0$ and $Y - X >0$. Can we determine which of $Y$ and $0$ is bigger? (GRE question)Triangle inequality proof in Spivak's calculusInequality proof, why isn't squaring by both sides permissible?Find value of $x$ for: $(1/3)(1-x) geq 2(x-3)$Inequalities with variables that are integersProve $z leq 2(z+1-log z) - (4-2log 2) $ for $z>0$Why two Inequalities are trueUnderstanding an example of “for all” and “for some” usage in statements.Suppose $x<epsilon$, why is then $ln (1-x) > -fracx1-epsilon$Problem in solving inequality.










0












$begingroup$


If x and y are integers, can I rewrite x < y + 1 as x ≤ y?



If x = 1 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 1 + 1 ≡ 1 < 2, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 1, is also true.



If x = 1 and y = 2,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 2 + 1 ≡ 1 < 3, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 2, is also true.



If x = 2 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 2 < 1 + 1 ≡ 2 < 2, is false, and
x ≤ y ≡ 2 ≤ 1, is also false.



I don't see why x < y + 1 can't be rewritten as x ≤ y, or the other way around, when x and y are both integers.










share|cite|improve this question







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Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    If x and y are integers, Yes you can
    $endgroup$
    – M. Di
    Mar 28 at 0:42















0












$begingroup$


If x and y are integers, can I rewrite x < y + 1 as x ≤ y?



If x = 1 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 1 + 1 ≡ 1 < 2, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 1, is also true.



If x = 1 and y = 2,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 2 + 1 ≡ 1 < 3, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 2, is also true.



If x = 2 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 2 < 1 + 1 ≡ 2 < 2, is false, and
x ≤ y ≡ 2 ≤ 1, is also false.



I don't see why x < y + 1 can't be rewritten as x ≤ y, or the other way around, when x and y are both integers.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    If x and y are integers, Yes you can
    $endgroup$
    – M. Di
    Mar 28 at 0:42













0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


If x and y are integers, can I rewrite x < y + 1 as x ≤ y?



If x = 1 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 1 + 1 ≡ 1 < 2, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 1, is also true.



If x = 1 and y = 2,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 2 + 1 ≡ 1 < 3, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 2, is also true.



If x = 2 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 2 < 1 + 1 ≡ 2 < 2, is false, and
x ≤ y ≡ 2 ≤ 1, is also false.



I don't see why x < y + 1 can't be rewritten as x ≤ y, or the other way around, when x and y are both integers.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




If x and y are integers, can I rewrite x < y + 1 as x ≤ y?



If x = 1 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 1 + 1 ≡ 1 < 2, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 1, is also true.



If x = 1 and y = 2,
x < y + 1 ≡ 1 < 2 + 1 ≡ 1 < 3, is true, and
x ≤ y ≡ 1 ≤ 2, is also true.



If x = 2 and y = 1,
x < y + 1 ≡ 2 < 1 + 1 ≡ 2 < 2, is false, and
x ≤ y ≡ 2 ≤ 1, is also false.



I don't see why x < y + 1 can't be rewritten as x ≤ y, or the other way around, when x and y are both integers.







inequality






share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question






New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked Mar 28 at 0:38









Geon AnGeon An

1




1




New contributor




Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Geon An is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    If x and y are integers, Yes you can
    $endgroup$
    – M. Di
    Mar 28 at 0:42












  • 5




    $begingroup$
    If x and y are integers, Yes you can
    $endgroup$
    – M. Di
    Mar 28 at 0:42







5




5




$begingroup$
If x and y are integers, Yes you can
$endgroup$
– M. Di
Mar 28 at 0:42




$begingroup$
If x and y are integers, Yes you can
$endgroup$
– M. Di
Mar 28 at 0:42










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Let $x$ and $y$ be integers.



If $xle y$ then $x<y+1.$



On the other hand, if $x>y$ then $x ge y+1$.



Thus, $x le y $ if and only if $x<y+1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    For integers yes you can.



    For any $x,yin mathbb R$ we have $y < y+1$ and there are three possibilities for $x$



    i) $x ge y+1$. We were told this is not true.



    ii) $y < x < y+ 1$. If $y$ is an integer then there are no integers between $y$ and $y+1$. So if $x$ and $y$ are integers then this is impossible.



    iii) $x le y$.



    So we are told i) is false; and ii) is impossible. That leaves only iii) $x le y$.



    Note: You can't do this in general if $x$ and/or $y$ aren't integers.



    ==== old obtuse answer below ====



    Bear with me:



    Let's suppose $A$ is a set of numbers.



    If $k = max A$, the maximum element (if any) in $A$.



    Then if $x in A$ we have to have $x le k$. That's obvious. If $x$ is in $A$ and $k$ is the largest element in $A$ then $x$, an element, is at most, as large as the largest element.



    If $A= $ the set of all integers less than $y+1$, an integer. Then $y+1$ and anything larger is not in $A$ because $y+1 not < y+1$ nor would anything larger be. But $y < y+1$ so $y$ is in $A$. So $y = max A$ because $y$ any thing larger is not.



    Okay. So $x < y+1$ means $x$ is in $A$ and so $x le max A = y$.



    A bit overkill but....






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
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      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      0












      $begingroup$

      Let $x$ and $y$ be integers.



      If $xle y$ then $x<y+1.$



      On the other hand, if $x>y$ then $x ge y+1$.



      Thus, $x le y $ if and only if $x<y+1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        0












        $begingroup$

        Let $x$ and $y$ be integers.



        If $xle y$ then $x<y+1.$



        On the other hand, if $x>y$ then $x ge y+1$.



        Thus, $x le y $ if and only if $x<y+1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Let $x$ and $y$ be integers.



          If $xle y$ then $x<y+1.$



          On the other hand, if $x>y$ then $x ge y+1$.



          Thus, $x le y $ if and only if $x<y+1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Let $x$ and $y$ be integers.



          If $xle y$ then $x<y+1.$



          On the other hand, if $x>y$ then $x ge y+1$.



          Thus, $x le y $ if and only if $x<y+1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 28 at 1:36









          J. W. TannerJ. W. Tanner

          4,2011320




          4,2011320





















              0












              $begingroup$

              For integers yes you can.



              For any $x,yin mathbb R$ we have $y < y+1$ and there are three possibilities for $x$



              i) $x ge y+1$. We were told this is not true.



              ii) $y < x < y+ 1$. If $y$ is an integer then there are no integers between $y$ and $y+1$. So if $x$ and $y$ are integers then this is impossible.



              iii) $x le y$.



              So we are told i) is false; and ii) is impossible. That leaves only iii) $x le y$.



              Note: You can't do this in general if $x$ and/or $y$ aren't integers.



              ==== old obtuse answer below ====



              Bear with me:



              Let's suppose $A$ is a set of numbers.



              If $k = max A$, the maximum element (if any) in $A$.



              Then if $x in A$ we have to have $x le k$. That's obvious. If $x$ is in $A$ and $k$ is the largest element in $A$ then $x$, an element, is at most, as large as the largest element.



              If $A= $ the set of all integers less than $y+1$, an integer. Then $y+1$ and anything larger is not in $A$ because $y+1 not < y+1$ nor would anything larger be. But $y < y+1$ so $y$ is in $A$. So $y = max A$ because $y$ any thing larger is not.



              Okay. So $x < y+1$ means $x$ is in $A$ and so $x le max A = y$.



              A bit overkill but....






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                For integers yes you can.



                For any $x,yin mathbb R$ we have $y < y+1$ and there are three possibilities for $x$



                i) $x ge y+1$. We were told this is not true.



                ii) $y < x < y+ 1$. If $y$ is an integer then there are no integers between $y$ and $y+1$. So if $x$ and $y$ are integers then this is impossible.



                iii) $x le y$.



                So we are told i) is false; and ii) is impossible. That leaves only iii) $x le y$.



                Note: You can't do this in general if $x$ and/or $y$ aren't integers.



                ==== old obtuse answer below ====



                Bear with me:



                Let's suppose $A$ is a set of numbers.



                If $k = max A$, the maximum element (if any) in $A$.



                Then if $x in A$ we have to have $x le k$. That's obvious. If $x$ is in $A$ and $k$ is the largest element in $A$ then $x$, an element, is at most, as large as the largest element.



                If $A= $ the set of all integers less than $y+1$, an integer. Then $y+1$ and anything larger is not in $A$ because $y+1 not < y+1$ nor would anything larger be. But $y < y+1$ so $y$ is in $A$. So $y = max A$ because $y$ any thing larger is not.



                Okay. So $x < y+1$ means $x$ is in $A$ and so $x le max A = y$.



                A bit overkill but....






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  For integers yes you can.



                  For any $x,yin mathbb R$ we have $y < y+1$ and there are three possibilities for $x$



                  i) $x ge y+1$. We were told this is not true.



                  ii) $y < x < y+ 1$. If $y$ is an integer then there are no integers between $y$ and $y+1$. So if $x$ and $y$ are integers then this is impossible.



                  iii) $x le y$.



                  So we are told i) is false; and ii) is impossible. That leaves only iii) $x le y$.



                  Note: You can't do this in general if $x$ and/or $y$ aren't integers.



                  ==== old obtuse answer below ====



                  Bear with me:



                  Let's suppose $A$ is a set of numbers.



                  If $k = max A$, the maximum element (if any) in $A$.



                  Then if $x in A$ we have to have $x le k$. That's obvious. If $x$ is in $A$ and $k$ is the largest element in $A$ then $x$, an element, is at most, as large as the largest element.



                  If $A= $ the set of all integers less than $y+1$, an integer. Then $y+1$ and anything larger is not in $A$ because $y+1 not < y+1$ nor would anything larger be. But $y < y+1$ so $y$ is in $A$. So $y = max A$ because $y$ any thing larger is not.



                  Okay. So $x < y+1$ means $x$ is in $A$ and so $x le max A = y$.



                  A bit overkill but....






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  For integers yes you can.



                  For any $x,yin mathbb R$ we have $y < y+1$ and there are three possibilities for $x$



                  i) $x ge y+1$. We were told this is not true.



                  ii) $y < x < y+ 1$. If $y$ is an integer then there are no integers between $y$ and $y+1$. So if $x$ and $y$ are integers then this is impossible.



                  iii) $x le y$.



                  So we are told i) is false; and ii) is impossible. That leaves only iii) $x le y$.



                  Note: You can't do this in general if $x$ and/or $y$ aren't integers.



                  ==== old obtuse answer below ====



                  Bear with me:



                  Let's suppose $A$ is a set of numbers.



                  If $k = max A$, the maximum element (if any) in $A$.



                  Then if $x in A$ we have to have $x le k$. That's obvious. If $x$ is in $A$ and $k$ is the largest element in $A$ then $x$, an element, is at most, as large as the largest element.



                  If $A= $ the set of all integers less than $y+1$, an integer. Then $y+1$ and anything larger is not in $A$ because $y+1 not < y+1$ nor would anything larger be. But $y < y+1$ so $y$ is in $A$. So $y = max A$ because $y$ any thing larger is not.



                  Okay. So $x < y+1$ means $x$ is in $A$ and so $x le max A = y$.



                  A bit overkill but....







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 28 at 3:13

























                  answered Mar 28 at 1:41









                  fleabloodfleablood

                  73.7k22891




                  73.7k22891




















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