Wiener's tauberian theorem for Hardy space Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Real Hardy space questionProof of elementary Wiener's tauberian theoremAlternative definition of Hardy spacesInverse error function, its analytic continuation and Hardy spaceProve the equivalence of norms on the Hardy space $H^2(mathbbD)$.On translation-invariant spaces of $L^1(mathbbR)$ and Wiener's tauberian THMIf a function belongs to the Hardy spaceAbout strict inclusion in Hardy spacesIs harmonic Hardy space $h^p (D)$ complete for $0<p<1$?If $f$ is in a weighted Bergman space for the upper half plane, then $forallvarepsilon>0, zmapsto f(z+ivarepsilon)$ is in the Hardy space.
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Wiener's tauberian theorem for Hardy space
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Real Hardy space questionProof of elementary Wiener's tauberian theoremAlternative definition of Hardy spacesInverse error function, its analytic continuation and Hardy spaceProve the equivalence of norms on the Hardy space $H^2(mathbbD)$.On translation-invariant spaces of $L^1(mathbbR)$ and Wiener's tauberian THMIf a function belongs to the Hardy spaceAbout strict inclusion in Hardy spacesIs harmonic Hardy space $h^p (D)$ complete for $0<p<1$?If $f$ is in a weighted Bergman space for the upper half plane, then $forallvarepsilon>0, zmapsto f(z+ivarepsilon)$ is in the Hardy space.
$begingroup$
For $a>0$ let us define $$H^2(-a,a)=f mbox<a$: sup_yin [-a,a]int_mathbbR.$$ For $fin H^2(-a,a)$, define $|f|=sup_yin (-a,a)int_mathbbR|f(x+iy)|^2,dx<infty$. We note that the function $e^-z^2in H^2(-a,a)$ for any $a>0$. Can we have that
$operatornamespan(e^-(z-b)^2: binmathbbR)$ is dense in $H^2(-a,a)$ with respect to the norm $|cdot|$?
complex-analysis functional-analysis fourier-analysis hardy-spaces wieners-tauberian-theorem
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $a>0$ let us define $$H^2(-a,a)=f mbox<a$: sup_yin [-a,a]int_mathbbR.$$ For $fin H^2(-a,a)$, define $|f|=sup_yin (-a,a)int_mathbbR|f(x+iy)|^2,dx<infty$. We note that the function $e^-z^2in H^2(-a,a)$ for any $a>0$. Can we have that
$operatornamespan(e^-(z-b)^2: binmathbbR)$ is dense in $H^2(-a,a)$ with respect to the norm $|cdot|$?
complex-analysis functional-analysis fourier-analysis hardy-spaces wieners-tauberian-theorem
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $a>0$ let us define $$H^2(-a,a)=f mbox<a$: sup_yin [-a,a]int_mathbbR.$$ For $fin H^2(-a,a)$, define $|f|=sup_yin (-a,a)int_mathbbR|f(x+iy)|^2,dx<infty$. We note that the function $e^-z^2in H^2(-a,a)$ for any $a>0$. Can we have that
$operatornamespan(e^-(z-b)^2: binmathbbR)$ is dense in $H^2(-a,a)$ with respect to the norm $|cdot|$?
complex-analysis functional-analysis fourier-analysis hardy-spaces wieners-tauberian-theorem
$endgroup$
For $a>0$ let us define $$H^2(-a,a)=f mbox<a$: sup_yin [-a,a]int_mathbbR.$$ For $fin H^2(-a,a)$, define $|f|=sup_yin (-a,a)int_mathbbR|f(x+iy)|^2,dx<infty$. We note that the function $e^-z^2in H^2(-a,a)$ for any $a>0$. Can we have that
$operatornamespan(e^-(z-b)^2: binmathbbR)$ is dense in $H^2(-a,a)$ with respect to the norm $|cdot|$?
complex-analysis functional-analysis fourier-analysis hardy-spaces wieners-tauberian-theorem
complex-analysis functional-analysis fourier-analysis hardy-spaces wieners-tauberian-theorem
asked Apr 1 at 7:00
RibhuRibhu
28018
28018
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$begingroup$
I'm not sure. (Edit: actually I believe that yes, those functions are dense. See below) Some comments on this $H^2(-a,a)$ thing that may be helpful:
First, it's not at all clear tat the norm you define is, or is equivalent to, a Hilbert-space norm. But in fact if $fin H^2(-a,a)$ then the boundary values $f(xpm ia)$ exist almost everywhere, and the norm above is equivalent to the $L^2$ norm of the boundary values.
Second, in fact $fin H^2(-a,a)$ if and only if there exists $Fin L^2(Bbb R)$ with $$int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxi<infty$$and $$F(z)=int e^izxiF(xi),dxi;$$in fact $||f||$ is equivalent to $$left(int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxiright)^1/2.$$So your question reduces to the question of whether the span of the functions $e^ibxie^-xi^2$ is dense in $H=L^2left(e^dxiright)$.
I think it's clear that this is so. Say $F_b(xi)=e^ibxie^-xi^2$. Say $Fin H$ and $Fperp F_b$ for every $b$. If you let $G(xi)=e^e^-xi^2F(xi)$ then $Gin L^1(Bbb R)$ and $hat G=0$; hence $G=0$, so $F=0$.
About those preliminary results, the second in particular: I don't have a good reference. (i) Many years ago I heard Rudin say this had beenn proved by Bochner; I don't have a reference for that, to Rudin or to Bochner. (ii) I suspect this is a special case of results on "tube domains" in Stein&Weiss "Harmonic Analysis...".("Fourier Analysis..."?)
(iii) If you want to prove it yourself this might be a way to get started: Say $f_y(x)=f(x+iy)$. Let $f_pm a$ be a weak limit point of $f_y$ as $ytopm a$. Then a simple limiting argument shows that $$f(z)=frac12pi ileft(intfracf_-a(t)z-(t-ia),dt-intfracf_a(t)z-(t+ia),dtright).$$
Hint for showing the integral over the segments constituting the ends of the rectangles tends to $0$: If $0<delta<a-|y|$ then
$$beginalign|f(x+iy)|^2&=frac1pidelta^2left|iint_s^2+t^2<delta^2f^2(x+iy+s+it),dsdtright|\&lefrac1pidelta^2int_-delta^deltaint_-delta^delta|f(x+iy+s+it)|^2,dsdtendalign$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I'm not sure. (Edit: actually I believe that yes, those functions are dense. See below) Some comments on this $H^2(-a,a)$ thing that may be helpful:
First, it's not at all clear tat the norm you define is, or is equivalent to, a Hilbert-space norm. But in fact if $fin H^2(-a,a)$ then the boundary values $f(xpm ia)$ exist almost everywhere, and the norm above is equivalent to the $L^2$ norm of the boundary values.
Second, in fact $fin H^2(-a,a)$ if and only if there exists $Fin L^2(Bbb R)$ with $$int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxi<infty$$and $$F(z)=int e^izxiF(xi),dxi;$$in fact $||f||$ is equivalent to $$left(int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxiright)^1/2.$$So your question reduces to the question of whether the span of the functions $e^ibxie^-xi^2$ is dense in $H=L^2left(e^dxiright)$.
I think it's clear that this is so. Say $F_b(xi)=e^ibxie^-xi^2$. Say $Fin H$ and $Fperp F_b$ for every $b$. If you let $G(xi)=e^e^-xi^2F(xi)$ then $Gin L^1(Bbb R)$ and $hat G=0$; hence $G=0$, so $F=0$.
About those preliminary results, the second in particular: I don't have a good reference. (i) Many years ago I heard Rudin say this had beenn proved by Bochner; I don't have a reference for that, to Rudin or to Bochner. (ii) I suspect this is a special case of results on "tube domains" in Stein&Weiss "Harmonic Analysis...".("Fourier Analysis..."?)
(iii) If you want to prove it yourself this might be a way to get started: Say $f_y(x)=f(x+iy)$. Let $f_pm a$ be a weak limit point of $f_y$ as $ytopm a$. Then a simple limiting argument shows that $$f(z)=frac12pi ileft(intfracf_-a(t)z-(t-ia),dt-intfracf_a(t)z-(t+ia),dtright).$$
Hint for showing the integral over the segments constituting the ends of the rectangles tends to $0$: If $0<delta<a-|y|$ then
$$beginalign|f(x+iy)|^2&=frac1pidelta^2left|iint_s^2+t^2<delta^2f^2(x+iy+s+it),dsdtright|\&lefrac1pidelta^2int_-delta^deltaint_-delta^delta|f(x+iy+s+it)|^2,dsdtendalign$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm not sure. (Edit: actually I believe that yes, those functions are dense. See below) Some comments on this $H^2(-a,a)$ thing that may be helpful:
First, it's not at all clear tat the norm you define is, or is equivalent to, a Hilbert-space norm. But in fact if $fin H^2(-a,a)$ then the boundary values $f(xpm ia)$ exist almost everywhere, and the norm above is equivalent to the $L^2$ norm of the boundary values.
Second, in fact $fin H^2(-a,a)$ if and only if there exists $Fin L^2(Bbb R)$ with $$int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxi<infty$$and $$F(z)=int e^izxiF(xi),dxi;$$in fact $||f||$ is equivalent to $$left(int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxiright)^1/2.$$So your question reduces to the question of whether the span of the functions $e^ibxie^-xi^2$ is dense in $H=L^2left(e^dxiright)$.
I think it's clear that this is so. Say $F_b(xi)=e^ibxie^-xi^2$. Say $Fin H$ and $Fperp F_b$ for every $b$. If you let $G(xi)=e^e^-xi^2F(xi)$ then $Gin L^1(Bbb R)$ and $hat G=0$; hence $G=0$, so $F=0$.
About those preliminary results, the second in particular: I don't have a good reference. (i) Many years ago I heard Rudin say this had beenn proved by Bochner; I don't have a reference for that, to Rudin or to Bochner. (ii) I suspect this is a special case of results on "tube domains" in Stein&Weiss "Harmonic Analysis...".("Fourier Analysis..."?)
(iii) If you want to prove it yourself this might be a way to get started: Say $f_y(x)=f(x+iy)$. Let $f_pm a$ be a weak limit point of $f_y$ as $ytopm a$. Then a simple limiting argument shows that $$f(z)=frac12pi ileft(intfracf_-a(t)z-(t-ia),dt-intfracf_a(t)z-(t+ia),dtright).$$
Hint for showing the integral over the segments constituting the ends of the rectangles tends to $0$: If $0<delta<a-|y|$ then
$$beginalign|f(x+iy)|^2&=frac1pidelta^2left|iint_s^2+t^2<delta^2f^2(x+iy+s+it),dsdtright|\&lefrac1pidelta^2int_-delta^deltaint_-delta^delta|f(x+iy+s+it)|^2,dsdtendalign$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm not sure. (Edit: actually I believe that yes, those functions are dense. See below) Some comments on this $H^2(-a,a)$ thing that may be helpful:
First, it's not at all clear tat the norm you define is, or is equivalent to, a Hilbert-space norm. But in fact if $fin H^2(-a,a)$ then the boundary values $f(xpm ia)$ exist almost everywhere, and the norm above is equivalent to the $L^2$ norm of the boundary values.
Second, in fact $fin H^2(-a,a)$ if and only if there exists $Fin L^2(Bbb R)$ with $$int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxi<infty$$and $$F(z)=int e^izxiF(xi),dxi;$$in fact $||f||$ is equivalent to $$left(int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxiright)^1/2.$$So your question reduces to the question of whether the span of the functions $e^ibxie^-xi^2$ is dense in $H=L^2left(e^dxiright)$.
I think it's clear that this is so. Say $F_b(xi)=e^ibxie^-xi^2$. Say $Fin H$ and $Fperp F_b$ for every $b$. If you let $G(xi)=e^e^-xi^2F(xi)$ then $Gin L^1(Bbb R)$ and $hat G=0$; hence $G=0$, so $F=0$.
About those preliminary results, the second in particular: I don't have a good reference. (i) Many years ago I heard Rudin say this had beenn proved by Bochner; I don't have a reference for that, to Rudin or to Bochner. (ii) I suspect this is a special case of results on "tube domains" in Stein&Weiss "Harmonic Analysis...".("Fourier Analysis..."?)
(iii) If you want to prove it yourself this might be a way to get started: Say $f_y(x)=f(x+iy)$. Let $f_pm a$ be a weak limit point of $f_y$ as $ytopm a$. Then a simple limiting argument shows that $$f(z)=frac12pi ileft(intfracf_-a(t)z-(t-ia),dt-intfracf_a(t)z-(t+ia),dtright).$$
Hint for showing the integral over the segments constituting the ends of the rectangles tends to $0$: If $0<delta<a-|y|$ then
$$beginalign|f(x+iy)|^2&=frac1pidelta^2left|iint_s^2+t^2<delta^2f^2(x+iy+s+it),dsdtright|\&lefrac1pidelta^2int_-delta^deltaint_-delta^delta|f(x+iy+s+it)|^2,dsdtendalign$$
$endgroup$
I'm not sure. (Edit: actually I believe that yes, those functions are dense. See below) Some comments on this $H^2(-a,a)$ thing that may be helpful:
First, it's not at all clear tat the norm you define is, or is equivalent to, a Hilbert-space norm. But in fact if $fin H^2(-a,a)$ then the boundary values $f(xpm ia)$ exist almost everywhere, and the norm above is equivalent to the $L^2$ norm of the boundary values.
Second, in fact $fin H^2(-a,a)$ if and only if there exists $Fin L^2(Bbb R)$ with $$int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxi<infty$$and $$F(z)=int e^izxiF(xi),dxi;$$in fact $||f||$ is equivalent to $$left(int e^|F(xi)|^2,dxiright)^1/2.$$So your question reduces to the question of whether the span of the functions $e^ibxie^-xi^2$ is dense in $H=L^2left(e^dxiright)$.
I think it's clear that this is so. Say $F_b(xi)=e^ibxie^-xi^2$. Say $Fin H$ and $Fperp F_b$ for every $b$. If you let $G(xi)=e^e^-xi^2F(xi)$ then $Gin L^1(Bbb R)$ and $hat G=0$; hence $G=0$, so $F=0$.
About those preliminary results, the second in particular: I don't have a good reference. (i) Many years ago I heard Rudin say this had beenn proved by Bochner; I don't have a reference for that, to Rudin or to Bochner. (ii) I suspect this is a special case of results on "tube domains" in Stein&Weiss "Harmonic Analysis...".("Fourier Analysis..."?)
(iii) If you want to prove it yourself this might be a way to get started: Say $f_y(x)=f(x+iy)$. Let $f_pm a$ be a weak limit point of $f_y$ as $ytopm a$. Then a simple limiting argument shows that $$f(z)=frac12pi ileft(intfracf_-a(t)z-(t-ia),dt-intfracf_a(t)z-(t+ia),dtright).$$
Hint for showing the integral over the segments constituting the ends of the rectangles tends to $0$: If $0<delta<a-|y|$ then
$$beginalign|f(x+iy)|^2&=frac1pidelta^2left|iint_s^2+t^2<delta^2f^2(x+iy+s+it),dsdtright|\&lefrac1pidelta^2int_-delta^deltaint_-delta^delta|f(x+iy+s+it)|^2,dsdtendalign$$
edited Apr 2 at 16:30
answered Apr 1 at 14:12
David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich
61.8k44095
61.8k44095
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
Thanks @David for your reply. I have one question: what is meant by "equivalent to the L^2 norm of the boundaries"? Is it equivalent to each of the boundaries?
$endgroup$
– Ribhu
Apr 2 at 0:29
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
$begingroup$
@Ribhu There's only one boundary; it consists of two lines. By "the $L^2$ norm on the boundary" I meant the $L^2$ norm with respect to the measure consisting of the sum of the Lebesgue measures on those two llnes.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Apr 2 at 15:38
add a comment |
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