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Any finite intersection of countable sets is countable. (By induction for any amount of countable sets) [on hold]



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowSets induction problem (complement of intersection equals union of complements)intersection of infinite collection of finite sets?Prove by induction that $Gamma vdash varphi Rightarrow Gamma[x/c] vdash varphi[x/c]$.Finite Union of Countable sets is countableSlowly being introduced to Propositional Logic…did I do this right?Slowly being introduced to Propositional Logic…did I get this right?Using mathematical induction to prove a generalized form of DeMorgan's Law for setsInductive first-order formula constructionFor any two finite sets $X$ and $Y$, prove that $#(Y^X)=#(Y)^#(X)$ by inductionDiscrete Math - Proving Distributive Laws for Sets by induction










-2












$begingroup$


I know how to do the base case I'm just struggling with the inductive hypothesis for this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi Mar 28 at 12:11


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Mar 28 at 8:53










  • $begingroup$
    Did you perhaps mean union?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 8:54










  • $begingroup$
    no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
    $endgroup$
    – user652437
    Mar 28 at 8:55






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 9:00
















-2












$begingroup$


I know how to do the base case I'm just struggling with the inductive hypothesis for this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi Mar 28 at 12:11


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Mar 28 at 8:53










  • $begingroup$
    Did you perhaps mean union?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 8:54










  • $begingroup$
    no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
    $endgroup$
    – user652437
    Mar 28 at 8:55






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 9:00














-2












-2








-2





$begingroup$


I know how to do the base case I'm just struggling with the inductive hypothesis for this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know how to do the base case I'm just struggling with the inductive hypothesis for this question.







elementary-set-theory logic






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









Andrés E. Caicedo

65.8k8160252




65.8k8160252










asked Mar 28 at 8:51









user652437user652437

22




22




put on hold as off-topic by Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi Mar 28 at 12:11


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







put on hold as off-topic by Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi Mar 28 at 12:11


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Shailesh, Claude Leibovici, José Carlos Santos, Especially Lime, Javi
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Mar 28 at 8:53










  • $begingroup$
    Did you perhaps mean union?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 8:54










  • $begingroup$
    no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
    $endgroup$
    – user652437
    Mar 28 at 8:55






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 9:00













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Mar 28 at 8:53










  • $begingroup$
    Did you perhaps mean union?
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 8:54










  • $begingroup$
    no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
    $endgroup$
    – user652437
    Mar 28 at 8:55






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Mar 28 at 9:00








1




1




$begingroup$
Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
$endgroup$
– lulu
Mar 28 at 8:53




$begingroup$
Any subset of a countable set is countable (trusting that you consider finite, or empty, sets to be countable...not everyone does).
$endgroup$
– lulu
Mar 28 at 8:53












$begingroup$
Did you perhaps mean union?
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 8:54




$begingroup$
Did you perhaps mean union?
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 8:54












$begingroup$
no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
$endgroup$
– user652437
Mar 28 at 8:55




$begingroup$
no i meant interception and i need to do it with induction
$endgroup$
– user652437
Mar 28 at 8:55




1




1




$begingroup$
Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 9:00





$begingroup$
Why do you need to do it by induction? I think it would actually be difficult to write a proof for the induction step which is not basically a full proof on its own, without any induction mechanism (i.e. a proof that has to actually use the induction hypothesis).
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Mar 28 at 9:00











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

The argument for the base case ($n = 2$) already proves the whole claim, so this is pointless, but if you really want, here we go:



Induction hypothesis: For any $n$ countable sets $A_1, ldots, A_n$ the intersection $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_k$ is countable.



Induction step: Let $A_1, ldots, A_n+1$ be $n+1$ countable sets. Then
$bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k = left(bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_kright) cap A_n+1$. By the induction hypothesis the first set is countable. Hence $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k$ is the intesection of two countable sets and therefore by the base case countable as well.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



















    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    The argument for the base case ($n = 2$) already proves the whole claim, so this is pointless, but if you really want, here we go:



    Induction hypothesis: For any $n$ countable sets $A_1, ldots, A_n$ the intersection $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_k$ is countable.



    Induction step: Let $A_1, ldots, A_n+1$ be $n+1$ countable sets. Then
    $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k = left(bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_kright) cap A_n+1$. By the induction hypothesis the first set is countable. Hence $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k$ is the intesection of two countable sets and therefore by the base case countable as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      The argument for the base case ($n = 2$) already proves the whole claim, so this is pointless, but if you really want, here we go:



      Induction hypothesis: For any $n$ countable sets $A_1, ldots, A_n$ the intersection $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_k$ is countable.



      Induction step: Let $A_1, ldots, A_n+1$ be $n+1$ countable sets. Then
      $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k = left(bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_kright) cap A_n+1$. By the induction hypothesis the first set is countable. Hence $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k$ is the intesection of two countable sets and therefore by the base case countable as well.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The argument for the base case ($n = 2$) already proves the whole claim, so this is pointless, but if you really want, here we go:



        Induction hypothesis: For any $n$ countable sets $A_1, ldots, A_n$ the intersection $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_k$ is countable.



        Induction step: Let $A_1, ldots, A_n+1$ be $n+1$ countable sets. Then
        $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k = left(bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_kright) cap A_n+1$. By the induction hypothesis the first set is countable. Hence $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k$ is the intesection of two countable sets and therefore by the base case countable as well.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The argument for the base case ($n = 2$) already proves the whole claim, so this is pointless, but if you really want, here we go:



        Induction hypothesis: For any $n$ countable sets $A_1, ldots, A_n$ the intersection $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_k$ is countable.



        Induction step: Let $A_1, ldots, A_n+1$ be $n+1$ countable sets. Then
        $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k = left(bigcaplimits_k = 1^n A_kright) cap A_n+1$. By the induction hypothesis the first set is countable. Hence $bigcaplimits_k = 1^n+1 A_k$ is the intesection of two countable sets and therefore by the base case countable as well.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 28 at 9:39









        KlausKlaus

        2,832213




        2,832213













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