A finite poset $P$ is inductive iff it has a least element The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that for any infinite poset there is an infinite subset which is either linearly ordered or antichain.Building an antichain in a finite posetIf $X$ is inductive, then, $U = x in X mid x $ is transitive and every nonempty $ z subset x$ has an $in$-minimal element $ $ is inductive.Prove $X$ is well ordered.Prob. 5, Sec. 4.1 in Kreyszig's functional analysis book: A finite partially ordered set has a maximal elementShow that the set of prime ideals of A has minimal element with respect to inclusionI'm trying to prove that any finite partially ordered set has a minimal element.Maximal chain with upper bound has at least one elementEvery nonempty subset of $mathbbN$ has a smallest element.If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property.

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A finite poset $P$ is inductive iff it has a least element



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that for any infinite poset there is an infinite subset which is either linearly ordered or antichain.Building an antichain in a finite posetIf $X$ is inductive, then, $U = x in X mid x $ is transitive and every nonempty $ z subset x$ has an $in$-minimal element $ $ is inductive.Prove $X$ is well ordered.Prob. 5, Sec. 4.1 in Kreyszig's functional analysis book: A finite partially ordered set has a maximal elementShow that the set of prime ideals of A has minimal element with respect to inclusionI'm trying to prove that any finite partially ordered set has a minimal element.Maximal chain with upper bound has at least one elementEvery nonempty subset of $mathbbN$ has a smallest element.If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property.










0












$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04
















0












$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04














0












0








0





$begingroup$


The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The question (in the title) is from Notes on Set Theory by Moschovakis, 2nd edition chapter 6.



First, I am not exactly sure what they mean by "it has a least element." I guessed that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element and that no element of $S$ is comparable to any other element outside of it." But then, the set containing $a,b,c$ and with its nontrivial relations as only $a leq b$ and $c leq b$ is inductive, but it doesn't have a least element according to this interpretation... So I am forced to assume that the author means that "iff it has a subset $S$ such that $S$ has a least element." (this is my interpretation for the rest of this post.) But then, any nonempty $P$ has a least element if we take this interpretation, since given $a in P$, $a$ is a least element of $ a $ so that we are required to prove that every finite poset is inductive...



Assuming the second interpretation:
I tried induction on the number of elements $n$ of $P = x_1,...,x_n $. For $n=1$ the statement is true trivially. Assume the result for $k <n$.



Let $S$ be a chain in $P$. If $S neq P$ then by induction $S$ has a supremum. If $S=P$ then $S':=S - { x_n {$ has a supremum, say $x_1$. Since $S=P$ is a chain, either $x_1 leq x_n$ or $x_n x_1$, and the greater of the two is a shpremum.



Is this solution correct?



Edit: For clarification, the author uses the definition that a poset is inductive iff every chain has a least upper bound; in a chain, every element in a chain is comparable.







proof-verification elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 29 at 3:38







Cute Brownie

















asked Mar 28 at 10:23









Cute BrownieCute Brownie

1,048417




1,048417











  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04

















  • $begingroup$
    (P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 10:40










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    @Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Mar 28 at 11:49










  • $begingroup$
    @WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 28 at 12:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Mar 29 at 2:04
















$begingroup$
(P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 10:40




$begingroup$
(P,<=) has a least element when exists a in P with for all x in P, a <= x.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 10:40












$begingroup$
I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 11:46




$begingroup$
I don't understand, every nonempty finite poset is inductive : take a chain, either it's empty in which case any element of $P$ will do, or it's not, in which case it's a finite totally ordered set, hence has a maximum, hence an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 11:46












$begingroup$
@Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 11:49




$begingroup$
@Max. What definition of inductive set are you using?
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Mar 28 at 11:49












$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 12:00




$begingroup$
@WilliamElliot the one from Zorn's lemma : a poset is inductive iff any chain has an upper bound
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 28 at 12:00




1




1




$begingroup$
I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Mar 29 at 2:04





$begingroup$
I'm going to guess that the definition of "inductive" that is intended in the question is "every chain has a least upper bound". Then finiteness ensures that this holds for every nonempty chain (since such a chain has a top element), and the additional assumption that the poset has a least element is exactly what's needed to take care of the empty chain.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Mar 29 at 2:04











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