Regarding an entire function being affineOn maximal ideal spaces of a banach algebraAlgebra of bounded functions on a completely regular spaceIdentity theorem - entire functionEvery Jordan function $phi$ on $A$ is multiplicative.A complex unital algebra which is a Banach space is also a Banach algebraMistake in Bak/Newman — need help figuring this outEntire function and constantWhat space corresponds to the localisation of the ring of continuous functions?On a pseudo periodic entire function being an exponential functionQuestion on entire function

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Regarding an entire function being affine


On maximal ideal spaces of a banach algebraAlgebra of bounded functions on a completely regular spaceIdentity theorem - entire functionEvery Jordan function $phi$ on $A$ is multiplicative.A complex unital algebra which is a Banach space is also a Banach algebraMistake in Bak/Newman — need help figuring this outEntire function and constantWhat space corresponds to the localisation of the ring of continuous functions?On a pseudo periodic entire function being an exponential functionQuestion on entire function













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I have been reading this article A characterization of multiplicative linear functionals in Banach algebras and got stuck in the middle of the proof of theorem 1.2 on page 217.
In the 3rd line from below, they say that the function $f_a,b:mathbbClongrightarrowmathbbC$ is Lipschitz and entire hence it is affine. Can anyone tell me why it would be affine. Or suggest me a reference to the result which states that an Lipschitz entire complex function will be affine.



Or can you tell other conditions for an entire function to be affine?










share|cite|improve this question









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  • $begingroup$
    answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 5:55















0












$begingroup$


I have been reading this article A characterization of multiplicative linear functionals in Banach algebras and got stuck in the middle of the proof of theorem 1.2 on page 217.
In the 3rd line from below, they say that the function $f_a,b:mathbbClongrightarrowmathbbC$ is Lipschitz and entire hence it is affine. Can anyone tell me why it would be affine. Or suggest me a reference to the result which states that an Lipschitz entire complex function will be affine.



Or can you tell other conditions for an entire function to be affine?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 5:55













0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have been reading this article A characterization of multiplicative linear functionals in Banach algebras and got stuck in the middle of the proof of theorem 1.2 on page 217.
In the 3rd line from below, they say that the function $f_a,b:mathbbClongrightarrowmathbbC$ is Lipschitz and entire hence it is affine. Can anyone tell me why it would be affine. Or suggest me a reference to the result which states that an Lipschitz entire complex function will be affine.



Or can you tell other conditions for an entire function to be affine?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have been reading this article A characterization of multiplicative linear functionals in Banach algebras and got stuck in the middle of the proof of theorem 1.2 on page 217.
In the 3rd line from below, they say that the function $f_a,b:mathbbClongrightarrowmathbbC$ is Lipschitz and entire hence it is affine. Can anyone tell me why it would be affine. Or suggest me a reference to the result which states that an Lipschitz entire complex function will be affine.



Or can you tell other conditions for an entire function to be affine?







complex-analysis banach-algebras entire-functions






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 30 at 5:34









user534666user534666

374




374











  • $begingroup$
    answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 5:55
















  • $begingroup$
    answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Mar 30 at 5:55















$begingroup$
answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 5:55




$begingroup$
answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101221090813AA6d8dG
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Mar 30 at 5:55










1 Answer
1






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0












$begingroup$

Since $f_a,b$ is Lipschitz, its derivative is bounded. A bounded entire constant is constant, so $f_a,b$ is an antiderivative of a constant, so it is affine.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
    $endgroup$
    – TomGrubb
    Mar 30 at 6:02











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Since $f_a,b$ is Lipschitz, its derivative is bounded. A bounded entire constant is constant, so $f_a,b$ is an antiderivative of a constant, so it is affine.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
    $endgroup$
    – TomGrubb
    Mar 30 at 6:02















0












$begingroup$

Since $f_a,b$ is Lipschitz, its derivative is bounded. A bounded entire constant is constant, so $f_a,b$ is an antiderivative of a constant, so it is affine.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
    $endgroup$
    – TomGrubb
    Mar 30 at 6:02













0












0








0





$begingroup$

Since $f_a,b$ is Lipschitz, its derivative is bounded. A bounded entire constant is constant, so $f_a,b$ is an antiderivative of a constant, so it is affine.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Since $f_a,b$ is Lipschitz, its derivative is bounded. A bounded entire constant is constant, so $f_a,b$ is an antiderivative of a constant, so it is affine.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 30 at 5:58









Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

192k14220352




192k14220352











  • $begingroup$
    "Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
    $endgroup$
    – TomGrubb
    Mar 30 at 6:02
















  • $begingroup$
    "Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
    $endgroup$
    – TomGrubb
    Mar 30 at 6:02















$begingroup$
"Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
$endgroup$
– TomGrubb
Mar 30 at 6:02




$begingroup$
"Lipschitz and entire" is in the question @ClementC.
$endgroup$
– TomGrubb
Mar 30 at 6:02

















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