Question regarding upper and lower integral sums The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)upper and lower sums in Riemann integralWhy is Lebesgue integral first defined for step function and then for larger classes of functions?Determine the sign of $int_0^2pif(x)dx$Example : Iterated integral and Fubini TheoremRiemann Upper and Lower SumsLower sums and upper sums (integration)Question Regarding Upper and Lower IntegralsWhat principles/rules exist for manipulating lower and upper bounds for inequalities in general with real numbers?The relation of $O$- and $Omega$-symbols and an unexpected absolute sign in the definiton of $O$.A question regarding an inequality of lower and upper sums…

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Question regarding upper and lower integral sums



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)upper and lower sums in Riemann integralWhy is Lebesgue integral first defined for step function and then for larger classes of functions?Determine the sign of $int_0^2pif(x)dx$Example : Iterated integral and Fubini TheoremRiemann Upper and Lower SumsLower sums and upper sums (integration)Question Regarding Upper and Lower IntegralsWhat principles/rules exist for manipulating lower and upper bounds for inequalities in general with real numbers?The relation of $O$- and $Omega$-symbols and an unexpected absolute sign in the definiton of $O$.A question regarding an inequality of lower and upper sums…










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enter image description here



This is from Binmore’s Mathematical analysis. My question is why does the author say that use of the second definition gives (7) with the negative signs. Second definition is depicted in figure 2. Also how does he say that (6) and (7) are equal? I’m afraid I’m missing something obvious. Is the negative sign due to the fact that the upper sum values go above the graph and we talk about area under the curve?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    enter image description here



    This is from Binmore’s Mathematical analysis. My question is why does the author say that use of the second definition gives (7) with the negative signs. Second definition is depicted in figure 2. Also how does he say that (6) and (7) are equal? I’m afraid I’m missing something obvious. Is the negative sign due to the fact that the upper sum values go above the graph and we talk about area under the curve?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      enter image description here



      This is from Binmore’s Mathematical analysis. My question is why does the author say that use of the second definition gives (7) with the negative signs. Second definition is depicted in figure 2. Also how does he say that (6) and (7) are equal? I’m afraid I’m missing something obvious. Is the negative sign due to the fact that the upper sum values go above the graph and we talk about area under the curve?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      enter image description here



      This is from Binmore’s Mathematical analysis. My question is why does the author say that use of the second definition gives (7) with the negative signs. Second definition is depicted in figure 2. Also how does he say that (6) and (7) are equal? I’m afraid I’m missing something obvious. Is the negative sign due to the fact that the upper sum values go above the graph and we talk about area under the curve?







      real-analysis






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      asked Mar 31 at 13:56









      Daniel EvansDaniel Evans

      1846




      1846




















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          $begingroup$

          It boils down to the property that $sup a =-inf (-a)$ for $a$ in some domain.



          The upper integral is defined as $inf U(f,P)$, where $P$ is a partition of the interval.



          This is equal to



          $inf sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x) \
          = -sup [-sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x] \
          = -sup [sum(inf (-f(x))cdot Delta x] \
          = -sup L(-f,P)$
          ,



          which is $-int_a^b -f(x)dx$ by the first definition via supremum.



          As for the equality between (6) and (7), has the book introduced the fundamental theorem of calculus at this point yet?






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            0












            $begingroup$

            It boils down to the property that $sup a =-inf (-a)$ for $a$ in some domain.



            The upper integral is defined as $inf U(f,P)$, where $P$ is a partition of the interval.



            This is equal to



            $inf sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x) \
            = -sup [-sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x] \
            = -sup [sum(inf (-f(x))cdot Delta x] \
            = -sup L(-f,P)$
            ,



            which is $-int_a^b -f(x)dx$ by the first definition via supremum.



            As for the equality between (6) and (7), has the book introduced the fundamental theorem of calculus at this point yet?






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              It boils down to the property that $sup a =-inf (-a)$ for $a$ in some domain.



              The upper integral is defined as $inf U(f,P)$, where $P$ is a partition of the interval.



              This is equal to



              $inf sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x) \
              = -sup [-sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x] \
              = -sup [sum(inf (-f(x))cdot Delta x] \
              = -sup L(-f,P)$
              ,



              which is $-int_a^b -f(x)dx$ by the first definition via supremum.



              As for the equality between (6) and (7), has the book introduced the fundamental theorem of calculus at this point yet?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                It boils down to the property that $sup a =-inf (-a)$ for $a$ in some domain.



                The upper integral is defined as $inf U(f,P)$, where $P$ is a partition of the interval.



                This is equal to



                $inf sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x) \
                = -sup [-sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x] \
                = -sup [sum(inf (-f(x))cdot Delta x] \
                = -sup L(-f,P)$
                ,



                which is $-int_a^b -f(x)dx$ by the first definition via supremum.



                As for the equality between (6) and (7), has the book introduced the fundamental theorem of calculus at this point yet?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It boils down to the property that $sup a =-inf (-a)$ for $a$ in some domain.



                The upper integral is defined as $inf U(f,P)$, where $P$ is a partition of the interval.



                This is equal to



                $inf sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x) \
                = -sup [-sum(sup f(x)cdot Delta x] \
                = -sup [sum(inf (-f(x))cdot Delta x] \
                = -sup L(-f,P)$
                ,



                which is $-int_a^b -f(x)dx$ by the first definition via supremum.



                As for the equality between (6) and (7), has the book introduced the fundamental theorem of calculus at this point yet?







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 31 at 15:27









                BunburyBunbury

                767




                767



























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