Prove that $sumlimits_n=1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ uniformly convergent on $[a,b]$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is there such a theorem about uniform convergence?Characterizing where the series $f(x)=sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrac11+n^2$ is uniformly convergent.Proof that $sumlimits_k=1^nfracsin(kx)k^2$ convergences uniformly using the Cauchy criterionDetermine whether $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1n^x$ converges uniformly on $(1,infty)$Evaluating $lim_n to infty sumlimits_k=1^n frac1k 2^k $Prove that the sum of inverses of factorials is convergentAbsolutely but not uniformly convergentShow that the series $sumlimits_k=1^inftyfracx^kk$ does not converge uniformly on $(-1,1)$.Prove that $xmapsto sum^infty_n=0f_n(x)=sum^infty_n=0fracx^2(1+x^2)^n$ does not converge uniformly on $[-1,1]$Show that $sum^infty_n=1(-1)^n+1frac1n+x^4$ is uniformly convergent on $BbbR$Convergence of $sumlimits_n=0^infty (1-|a_n|)$

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Prove that $sumlimits_n=1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ uniformly convergent on $[a,b]$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is there such a theorem about uniform convergence?Characterizing where the series $f(x)=sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrac1$ is uniformly convergent.Proof that $sumlimits_k=1^nfracsin(kx)k^2$ convergences uniformly using the Cauchy criterionDetermine whether $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1n^x$ converges uniformly on $(1,infty)$Evaluating $lim_n to infty sumlimits_k=1^n frac1k 2^k $Prove that the sum of inverses of factorials is convergentAbsolutely but not uniformly convergentShow that the series $sumlimits_k=1^inftyfracx^kk$ does not converge uniformly on $(-1,1)$.Prove that $xmapsto sum^infty_n=0f_n(x)=sum^infty_n=0fracx^2(1+x^2)^n$ does not converge uniformly on $[-1,1]$Show that $sum^infty_n=1(-1)^n+1frac1n+x^4$ is uniformly convergent on $BbbR$Convergence of $sumlimits_n=0^infty (1-|a_n|)$










3












$begingroup$


I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$



$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$



Is what I am doing right till now ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Apr 1 at 1:28















3












$begingroup$


I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$



$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$



Is what I am doing right till now ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Apr 1 at 1:28













3












3








3





$begingroup$


I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$



$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$



Is what I am doing right till now ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$



$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$



Is what I am doing right till now ?







real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 31 at 14:26









rtybase

11.6k31534




11.6k31534










asked Mar 30 at 9:33









Pedro AlvarèsPedro Alvarès

966




966











  • $begingroup$
    If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Apr 1 at 1:28
















  • $begingroup$
    If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Apr 1 at 1:28















$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28




$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.




An alternative way




Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$
since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 21:49











  • $begingroup$
    Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Mar 31 at 22:23











  • $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 22:29










  • $begingroup$
    Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:05










  • $begingroup$
    It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:11



















1












$begingroup$

Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,



$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$



you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.



For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,



$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$



for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.



However,



$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$



Taking $p = 2q$, we have



$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$



and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.



A correct approach



Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have



$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$



where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.



The uniform convergence is easily established since,



$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$



See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.



Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

    oldest

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    0












    $begingroup$

    Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
    therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.




    An alternative way




    Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
    left$$
    since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 21:49











    • $begingroup$
      Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Mar 31 at 22:23











    • $begingroup$
      I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 22:29










    • $begingroup$
      Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:05










    • $begingroup$
      It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:11
















    0












    $begingroup$

    Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
    therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.




    An alternative way




    Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
    left$$
    since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 21:49











    • $begingroup$
      Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Mar 31 at 22:23











    • $begingroup$
      I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 22:29










    • $begingroup$
      Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:05










    • $begingroup$
      It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:11














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
    therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.




    An alternative way




    Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
    left$$
    since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
    therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.




    An alternative way




    Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
    left$$
    since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Apr 1 at 7:46

























    answered Mar 31 at 9:34









    Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

    18.1k31040




    18.1k31040











    • $begingroup$
      For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 21:49











    • $begingroup$
      Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Mar 31 at 22:23











    • $begingroup$
      I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 22:29










    • $begingroup$
      Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:05










    • $begingroup$
      It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:11

















    • $begingroup$
      For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 21:49











    • $begingroup$
      Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
      $endgroup$
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Mar 31 at 22:23











    • $begingroup$
      I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      Mar 31 at 22:29










    • $begingroup$
      Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:05










    • $begingroup$
      It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Alvarès
      Apr 1 at 0:11
















    $begingroup$
    For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 21:49





    $begingroup$
    For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 21:49













    $begingroup$
    Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Mar 31 at 22:23





    $begingroup$
    Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
    $endgroup$
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Mar 31 at 22:23













    $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 22:29




    $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Mar 31 at 22:29












    $begingroup$
    Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:05




    $begingroup$
    Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:05












    $begingroup$
    It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:11





    $begingroup$
    It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Alvarès
    Apr 1 at 0:11












    1












    $begingroup$

    Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,



    $$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$



    you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.



    For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,



    $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$



    for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.



    However,



    $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$



    Taking $p = 2q$, we have



    $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$



    and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.



    A correct approach



    Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have



    $$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$



    where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.



    The uniform convergence is easily established since,



    $$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$



    See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.



    Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,



      $$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$



      you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.



      For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,



      $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$



      for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.



      However,



      $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$



      Taking $p = 2q$, we have



      $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$



      and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.



      A correct approach



      Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have



      $$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$



      where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.



      The uniform convergence is easily established since,



      $$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$



      See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.



      Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,



        $$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$



        you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.



        For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$



        for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.



        However,



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$



        Taking $p = 2q$, we have



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$



        and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.



        A correct approach



        Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have



        $$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$



        where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.



        The uniform convergence is easily established since,



        $$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$



        See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.



        Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,



        $$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$



        you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.



        For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$



        for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.



        However,



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$



        Taking $p = 2q$, we have



        $$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$



        and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.



        A correct approach



        Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have



        $$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$



        where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.



        The uniform convergence is easily established since,



        $$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$



        See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.



        Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 31 at 21:24

























        answered Mar 31 at 7:55









        RRLRRL

        53.7k52574




        53.7k52574



























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