Prove that $sumlimits_n=1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ uniformly convergent on $[a,b]$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is there such a theorem about uniform convergence?Characterizing where the series $f(x)=sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrac11+n^2$ is uniformly convergent.Proof that $sumlimits_k=1^nfracsin(kx)k^2$ convergences uniformly using the Cauchy criterionDetermine whether $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1n^x$ converges uniformly on $(1,infty)$Evaluating $lim_n to infty sumlimits_k=1^n frac1k 2^k $Prove that the sum of inverses of factorials is convergentAbsolutely but not uniformly convergentShow that the series $sumlimits_k=1^inftyfracx^kk$ does not converge uniformly on $(-1,1)$.Prove that $xmapsto sum^infty_n=0f_n(x)=sum^infty_n=0fracx^2(1+x^2)^n$ does not converge uniformly on $[-1,1]$Show that $sum^infty_n=1(-1)^n+1frac1n+x^4$ is uniformly convergent on $BbbR$Convergence of $sumlimits_n=0^infty (1-|a_n|)$
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Prove that $sumlimits_n=1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ uniformly convergent on $[a,b]$
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is there such a theorem about uniform convergence?Characterizing where the series $f(x)=sumlimits_n=1^inftyfrac1$ is uniformly convergent.Proof that $sumlimits_k=1^nfracsin(kx)k^2$ convergences uniformly using the Cauchy criterionDetermine whether $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1n^x$ converges uniformly on $(1,infty)$Evaluating $lim_n to infty sumlimits_k=1^n frac1k 2^k $Prove that the sum of inverses of factorials is convergentAbsolutely but not uniformly convergentShow that the series $sumlimits_k=1^inftyfracx^kk$ does not converge uniformly on $(-1,1)$.Prove that $xmapsto sum^infty_n=0f_n(x)=sum^infty_n=0fracx^2(1+x^2)^n$ does not converge uniformly on $[-1,1]$Show that $sum^infty_n=1(-1)^n+1frac1n+x^4$ is uniformly convergent on $BbbR$Convergence of $sumlimits_n=0^infty (1-|a_n|)$
$begingroup$
I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$
$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$
Is what I am doing right till now ?
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$
$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$
Is what I am doing right till now ?
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$
$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$
Is what I am doing right till now ?
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
I used the cauchy criteria, for $p>q$
$$suplimits_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |=
suplimits_xleft | sumlimits_k=q+1^p(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2 right |leq \
suplimits_xsumlimits_k=q+1^pleft | fracx^2+nn^2 right |leq
suplimits_xfracx^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)=\
fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q)$$
Is what I am doing right till now ?
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence
real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence
edited Mar 31 at 14:26
rtybase
11.6k31534
11.6k31534
asked Mar 30 at 9:33
Pedro AlvarèsPedro Alvarès
966
966
$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28
$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28
$begingroup$
If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.
An alternative way
Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
$begingroup$
Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
$begingroup$
Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
$begingroup$
It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,
$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$
you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.
For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$
for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.
However,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$
Taking $p = 2q$, we have
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$
and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.
A correct approach
Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have
$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$
where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.
The uniform convergence is easily established since,
$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$
See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.
Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.
An alternative way
Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
$begingroup$
Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
$begingroup$
Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
$begingroup$
It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.
An alternative way
Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
$begingroup$
Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
$begingroup$
Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
$begingroup$
It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.
An alternative way
Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.
$endgroup$
Good way! Now each time let $p=lflooralpha qrfloor$ with some $alpha>1$
therefore$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le b^2+q+1over (q+1)^2(alpha-1)q$$and by tending $qtoinfty$ as Cauchy's criterion imposes we obtain$$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |le alpha-1$$since this is true for every $alpha>1$ therefore $$sup_xin [a,b]left | S_p(x) -S_q(x)right |to 0$$and the proof is complete.
An alternative way
Note that both$$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n=ln 2\sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nover n^2$$are convergent, therefore $$sum_n=1^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$$ is uniformly convergent by investigating $sum_n=N^infty(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ for large enough $N$. Another way to say it is that $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|\=
left$$since both $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn$ and $sum_n=N^inftyfrac(-1)^nn^2$ tend to zero and $maxa^2,b^2$ is bounded, then $|f_n(x)-f(x)|$ can be bounded enough and hence the proof is complete.
edited Apr 1 at 7:46
answered Mar 31 at 9:34
Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz
18.1k31040
18.1k31040
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
$begingroup$
Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
$begingroup$
Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
$begingroup$
It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
$begingroup$
Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
$endgroup$
– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
$begingroup$
I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
$begingroup$
Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
$begingroup$
It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
$endgroup$
– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
$begingroup$
For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
$endgroup$
– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
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For the OP approach to work we must have $fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) to 0$ as $q to infty$ for ANY $p > q$. You constructed a specific $p(q)$. What if $p = q^100$ for any $q$? Then we have $$fracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2(p-q) = (q^99-1)qfracb^2+q+1(q+1)^2 to +infty$$
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– RRL
Mar 31 at 21:49
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Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
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– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
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Then we conclude that the supremum is less than $infty$ which holds true automatically and carries to information
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– Mostafa Ayaz
Mar 31 at 22:23
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I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
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– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
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I'm not sure what you mean by the comment. However if what you say above is true then you have proved that $sum_n geqslant 1 fracx^2 + nn^2$ has partial sums that form a Cauchy sequence and the (absolute) series is convergent. Do you believe it is?
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– RRL
Mar 31 at 22:29
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Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
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– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
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Can't we use the second equivalent definition of the Cauchy criteria that is, $left | S_n+p-S_p right |=left |sum_k=p+1^n+p (-1)^kfracx^2+kk^2 right |leq fracb^2+p+1(p+1)^2 ×n$ ? (Only changed q )
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– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:05
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It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
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– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
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It tends to zero as p goes to infinity for any n, right ?
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– Pedro Alvarès
Apr 1 at 0:11
|
show 5 more comments
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Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,
$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$
you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.
For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$
for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.
However,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$
Taking $p = 2q$, we have
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$
and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.
A correct approach
Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have
$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$
where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.
The uniform convergence is easily established since,
$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$
See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.
Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,
$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$
you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.
For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$
for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.
However,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$
Taking $p = 2q$, we have
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$
and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.
A correct approach
Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have
$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$
where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.
The uniform convergence is easily established since,
$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$
See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.
Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,
$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$
you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.
For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$
for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.
However,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$
Taking $p = 2q$, we have
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$
and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.
A correct approach
Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have
$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$
where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.
The uniform convergence is easily established since,
$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$
See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.
Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.
$endgroup$
Since the series is not absolutely convergent, using the bound,
$$left|sum_n=p+1^q (-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2right| leqslant sum_n=p+1^qfracx^2+nn^2,$$
you will not succeed in proving that partial sums of $sum_n geqslant 1(-1)^nfracx^2+nn^2$ satisfy the Cauchy criterion uniformly because the RHS is the difference of partial sums for a divergent series. Note that $fracx^2+nn^2 = mathcalOleft(frac1n right)$.
For the bounding series to satisfy the Cauchy criterion, we must have for any $epsilon > 0$,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 < epsilon $$
for all sufficiently large $q$ and $p > q$.
However,
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant sup_x in [a,b](p-q) fracx^2 +q p^2 = (p-q) fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q p^2 $$
Taking $p = 2q$, we have
$$sup_x in [a,b]sum_n=q+1^p fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant q fracmax(a^2,b^2) +q 4q^2 = frac1 + max(a^2,b^2)/q4,$$
and since the RHS converges to $1/4$ as $q to infty$, the Cauchy criterion is violated.
A correct approach
Uniform convergence can be established using Dirichlet's test. The hypotheses are met since the partial sums $sum_n=1^N(-1)^n$are uniformly bounded and it can be shown that as $n to infty$, we have
$$fracx^2 + nn^2 downarrow 0,$$
where the convergence is monotonic and uniform for $x in [a,b]$.
The uniform convergence is easily established since,
$$fracmin(a^2,b^2)+nn^2 leqslant fracx^2+nn leqslant fracmax(a^2,b^2) +nn^2$$
See if you can finish by showing that $fracx^2 + nn^2$ is decreasing with respect to $n$.
Summation by parts is another approach, but that in essence repeats the steps in a proof of Dirichlet's test for uniform convergence.
edited Mar 31 at 21:24
answered Mar 31 at 7:55
RRLRRL
53.7k52574
53.7k52574
add a comment |
add a comment |
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If you were correct with this reasoning then $sum_n=1^infty fracx^2+nn^2$ must converge to get the Cauchy argument to work on the RHS. Do you think it does converge? Note $fracx^2+nn^2 geqslant fracnn^2 = frac1n$. The simple comparison test shows it diverges like the harmonic series.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Apr 1 at 1:28