What is Complete Induction without Hypothesis?: Ordering of $mathbbN$ from Peano's Axioms The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InPeano's Axioms and InductionIs it possible to develop Analysis solely from Peano's axiomsClassical proof that well-ordering principle is equivalent to complete inductionWhat would be the induction hypothesis in my proof?Proof by strong induction questionProve the principle of Mathematical Induction from the well-ordering principle.How to complete proof of strong induction from weak inductionProving well ordering principle from PMI (PCI) from peano axiomsHow should this proof of the associativity of natural number addition be understood?Must heredity be explicilty stated in addtion to Peano's axioms when defining natural numbers?

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What is Complete Induction without Hypothesis?: Ordering of $mathbbN$ from Peano's Axioms



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InPeano's Axioms and InductionIs it possible to develop Analysis solely from Peano's axiomsClassical proof that well-ordering principle is equivalent to complete inductionWhat would be the induction hypothesis in my proof?Proof by strong induction questionProve the principle of Mathematical Induction from the well-ordering principle.How to complete proof of strong induction from weak inductionProving well ordering principle from PMI (PCI) from peano axiomsHow should this proof of the associativity of natural number addition be understood?Must heredity be explicilty stated in addtion to Peano's axioms when defining natural numbers?










0












$begingroup$


The following is from Fundamentals of Mathematics, Volume 1 Foundations of Mathematics: The Real Number System and Algebra; Edited by H. Behnke, F. Bachmann, K. Fladt, W. Suess and H. Kunle



I've used square brackets '[' and ']' to indicate where referenced text is copied in place.



The quoted text is part of the development of the theory of natural numbers. Their version of Peano's axioms begins with 1, not 0. I am able to follow the discussion up to the proof of rule (15).




If for the numbers $a,b$ there exists a number $c$ with $a+c=b,$ we write $a<b$ ($a$ is less than $b$), or alternatively $b>a$ ($b$ is greater than $a$). For the relation $<$ defined in this way we have the following theorems:



  1. if $a<b,$ then $ane b$ (antireflexivity);


  2. if $a<b$ and $b<c,$ then $a<c$ (transitivity);


  3. if $a<b,$ then $left(a+dright)<left(b+dright)$(monotonicity of addition);


  4. if $ane b,$ then $a<b$ or $b<a.$


Rule (12), which states that $a+cne a$ for all $a,c,$ is proved by complete induction on $a,$ for we have $1+cne1$ by (1) [$a+1=a^prime$],
(7) [$a+b=b+a$] and axiom IV [$a^primene1$ for every number $a$]; and if we had $a^prime+c=a^prime,$ it would follow that $left(a+cright)^prime=a^prime,$ and thus $a+c=a.$ For
the proof of (13), (14) we set $a+u=b,b+v=c$ and thus get



$c=left(a+uright)+v=a+left(u+vright),$



$b+d=left(a+uright)+d=a+left(u+dright)=left(a+dright)+u.$



Complete induction on $a$ is again used to prove (15), as follows.



The case $a=1$ is first dealt with by complete induction on $b:$
[footnote: In this case the induction hypothesis is not used at all, a fact which may make the proof somewhat harder to follow.]



$1=1;$



$1<1+b=b+1=b^prime.$



Then from (15) (for all $b$) the same statement with $a^prime$instead of $a$ (thus for all $b:$ $a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or
$b<a^prime$) is derived by complete induction on $b:$



$1<a^prime;$



$a^prime<b^prime$ or $a^prime=b^prime$or $b^prime<a^prime$
by (15) and (14);



here again the induction hypothesis ($a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or $b<a^prime$) is not used.




Since they define complete induction as proving a proposition $Pleft[nright]$ true for all $ninmathbbN$ if an only if $Pleft[1right]$ and $Pleft[nright]impliesPleft[n^primeright],$ I'm not sure what it means to not use the induction hypothesis $Pleft[nright]$ in a proof by complete induction?



Will someone please explain this to me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    The following is from Fundamentals of Mathematics, Volume 1 Foundations of Mathematics: The Real Number System and Algebra; Edited by H. Behnke, F. Bachmann, K. Fladt, W. Suess and H. Kunle



    I've used square brackets '[' and ']' to indicate where referenced text is copied in place.



    The quoted text is part of the development of the theory of natural numbers. Their version of Peano's axioms begins with 1, not 0. I am able to follow the discussion up to the proof of rule (15).




    If for the numbers $a,b$ there exists a number $c$ with $a+c=b,$ we write $a<b$ ($a$ is less than $b$), or alternatively $b>a$ ($b$ is greater than $a$). For the relation $<$ defined in this way we have the following theorems:



    1. if $a<b,$ then $ane b$ (antireflexivity);


    2. if $a<b$ and $b<c,$ then $a<c$ (transitivity);


    3. if $a<b,$ then $left(a+dright)<left(b+dright)$(monotonicity of addition);


    4. if $ane b,$ then $a<b$ or $b<a.$


    Rule (12), which states that $a+cne a$ for all $a,c,$ is proved by complete induction on $a,$ for we have $1+cne1$ by (1) [$a+1=a^prime$],
    (7) [$a+b=b+a$] and axiom IV [$a^primene1$ for every number $a$]; and if we had $a^prime+c=a^prime,$ it would follow that $left(a+cright)^prime=a^prime,$ and thus $a+c=a.$ For
    the proof of (13), (14) we set $a+u=b,b+v=c$ and thus get



    $c=left(a+uright)+v=a+left(u+vright),$



    $b+d=left(a+uright)+d=a+left(u+dright)=left(a+dright)+u.$



    Complete induction on $a$ is again used to prove (15), as follows.



    The case $a=1$ is first dealt with by complete induction on $b:$
    [footnote: In this case the induction hypothesis is not used at all, a fact which may make the proof somewhat harder to follow.]



    $1=1;$



    $1<1+b=b+1=b^prime.$



    Then from (15) (for all $b$) the same statement with $a^prime$instead of $a$ (thus for all $b:$ $a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or
    $b<a^prime$) is derived by complete induction on $b:$



    $1<a^prime;$



    $a^prime<b^prime$ or $a^prime=b^prime$or $b^prime<a^prime$
    by (15) and (14);



    here again the induction hypothesis ($a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or $b<a^prime$) is not used.




    Since they define complete induction as proving a proposition $Pleft[nright]$ true for all $ninmathbbN$ if an only if $Pleft[1right]$ and $Pleft[nright]impliesPleft[n^primeright],$ I'm not sure what it means to not use the induction hypothesis $Pleft[nright]$ in a proof by complete induction?



    Will someone please explain this to me?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      The following is from Fundamentals of Mathematics, Volume 1 Foundations of Mathematics: The Real Number System and Algebra; Edited by H. Behnke, F. Bachmann, K. Fladt, W. Suess and H. Kunle



      I've used square brackets '[' and ']' to indicate where referenced text is copied in place.



      The quoted text is part of the development of the theory of natural numbers. Their version of Peano's axioms begins with 1, not 0. I am able to follow the discussion up to the proof of rule (15).




      If for the numbers $a,b$ there exists a number $c$ with $a+c=b,$ we write $a<b$ ($a$ is less than $b$), or alternatively $b>a$ ($b$ is greater than $a$). For the relation $<$ defined in this way we have the following theorems:



      1. if $a<b,$ then $ane b$ (antireflexivity);


      2. if $a<b$ and $b<c,$ then $a<c$ (transitivity);


      3. if $a<b,$ then $left(a+dright)<left(b+dright)$(monotonicity of addition);


      4. if $ane b,$ then $a<b$ or $b<a.$


      Rule (12), which states that $a+cne a$ for all $a,c,$ is proved by complete induction on $a,$ for we have $1+cne1$ by (1) [$a+1=a^prime$],
      (7) [$a+b=b+a$] and axiom IV [$a^primene1$ for every number $a$]; and if we had $a^prime+c=a^prime,$ it would follow that $left(a+cright)^prime=a^prime,$ and thus $a+c=a.$ For
      the proof of (13), (14) we set $a+u=b,b+v=c$ and thus get



      $c=left(a+uright)+v=a+left(u+vright),$



      $b+d=left(a+uright)+d=a+left(u+dright)=left(a+dright)+u.$



      Complete induction on $a$ is again used to prove (15), as follows.



      The case $a=1$ is first dealt with by complete induction on $b:$
      [footnote: In this case the induction hypothesis is not used at all, a fact which may make the proof somewhat harder to follow.]



      $1=1;$



      $1<1+b=b+1=b^prime.$



      Then from (15) (for all $b$) the same statement with $a^prime$instead of $a$ (thus for all $b:$ $a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or
      $b<a^prime$) is derived by complete induction on $b:$



      $1<a^prime;$



      $a^prime<b^prime$ or $a^prime=b^prime$or $b^prime<a^prime$
      by (15) and (14);



      here again the induction hypothesis ($a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or $b<a^prime$) is not used.




      Since they define complete induction as proving a proposition $Pleft[nright]$ true for all $ninmathbbN$ if an only if $Pleft[1right]$ and $Pleft[nright]impliesPleft[n^primeright],$ I'm not sure what it means to not use the induction hypothesis $Pleft[nright]$ in a proof by complete induction?



      Will someone please explain this to me?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      The following is from Fundamentals of Mathematics, Volume 1 Foundations of Mathematics: The Real Number System and Algebra; Edited by H. Behnke, F. Bachmann, K. Fladt, W. Suess and H. Kunle



      I've used square brackets '[' and ']' to indicate where referenced text is copied in place.



      The quoted text is part of the development of the theory of natural numbers. Their version of Peano's axioms begins with 1, not 0. I am able to follow the discussion up to the proof of rule (15).




      If for the numbers $a,b$ there exists a number $c$ with $a+c=b,$ we write $a<b$ ($a$ is less than $b$), or alternatively $b>a$ ($b$ is greater than $a$). For the relation $<$ defined in this way we have the following theorems:



      1. if $a<b,$ then $ane b$ (antireflexivity);


      2. if $a<b$ and $b<c,$ then $a<c$ (transitivity);


      3. if $a<b,$ then $left(a+dright)<left(b+dright)$(monotonicity of addition);


      4. if $ane b,$ then $a<b$ or $b<a.$


      Rule (12), which states that $a+cne a$ for all $a,c,$ is proved by complete induction on $a,$ for we have $1+cne1$ by (1) [$a+1=a^prime$],
      (7) [$a+b=b+a$] and axiom IV [$a^primene1$ for every number $a$]; and if we had $a^prime+c=a^prime,$ it would follow that $left(a+cright)^prime=a^prime,$ and thus $a+c=a.$ For
      the proof of (13), (14) we set $a+u=b,b+v=c$ and thus get



      $c=left(a+uright)+v=a+left(u+vright),$



      $b+d=left(a+uright)+d=a+left(u+dright)=left(a+dright)+u.$



      Complete induction on $a$ is again used to prove (15), as follows.



      The case $a=1$ is first dealt with by complete induction on $b:$
      [footnote: In this case the induction hypothesis is not used at all, a fact which may make the proof somewhat harder to follow.]



      $1=1;$



      $1<1+b=b+1=b^prime.$



      Then from (15) (for all $b$) the same statement with $a^prime$instead of $a$ (thus for all $b:$ $a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or
      $b<a^prime$) is derived by complete induction on $b:$



      $1<a^prime;$



      $a^prime<b^prime$ or $a^prime=b^prime$or $b^prime<a^prime$
      by (15) and (14);



      here again the induction hypothesis ($a^prime<b$ or $a^prime=b$ or $b<a^prime$) is not used.




      Since they define complete induction as proving a proposition $Pleft[nright]$ true for all $ninmathbbN$ if an only if $Pleft[1right]$ and $Pleft[nright]impliesPleft[n^primeright],$ I'm not sure what it means to not use the induction hypothesis $Pleft[nright]$ in a proof by complete induction?



      Will someone please explain this to me?







      number-theory proof-writing induction proof-explanation peano-axioms






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 30 at 21:41







      Steven Hatton

















      asked Aug 31 '18 at 16:06









      Steven HattonSteven Hatton

      989422




      989422




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you have to prove $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, where $P[n]$ is the hypothesis, but sometimes you can show $P[n']$ without using the hypothesis $P[n]$. But of course, in showing $P[n']$, you have automatically shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, so you still show what is need for the inductive proof.



          To be concrete: in their proof they are tring to show that is $a neq b$, then $a<b$ or $b<a$ for any $a$ and $b$. To prove this, they first consider $a=1$, so now they need to show that for all $b$: if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. And for that, they use induction:



          Base case: $b=1$. Well, then $b neq 1$ is false, making the whole conditional if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ true. Done with base.



          Step: Suppose we have if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ for some specific $b$ (this is the inductive hypothesis). Now we need to show that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$. Well, we know that $b'1=b+1=1+b>1$, so done ... but note: in showing that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$, we never used the hypothesis that if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. In fact, we also didn't use $b' neq 1$.



          We directly showed:



          $$1<b'$$



          ,therefore



          $$1<b' text or b'<1$$



          ,therefore



          $$textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1$$



          , and therefore



          $$[textif b neq 1, text then 1<b text or b<1] text then [textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1]$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Aug 31 '18 at 16:40










          • $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Aug 31 '18 at 17:38











          • $begingroup$
            Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Sep 3 '18 at 6:33






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Sep 3 '18 at 12:14












          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you have to prove $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, where $P[n]$ is the hypothesis, but sometimes you can show $P[n']$ without using the hypothesis $P[n]$. But of course, in showing $P[n']$, you have automatically shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, so you still show what is need for the inductive proof.



          To be concrete: in their proof they are tring to show that is $a neq b$, then $a<b$ or $b<a$ for any $a$ and $b$. To prove this, they first consider $a=1$, so now they need to show that for all $b$: if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. And for that, they use induction:



          Base case: $b=1$. Well, then $b neq 1$ is false, making the whole conditional if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ true. Done with base.



          Step: Suppose we have if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ for some specific $b$ (this is the inductive hypothesis). Now we need to show that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$. Well, we know that $b'1=b+1=1+b>1$, so done ... but note: in showing that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$, we never used the hypothesis that if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. In fact, we also didn't use $b' neq 1$.



          We directly showed:



          $$1<b'$$



          ,therefore



          $$1<b' text or b'<1$$



          ,therefore



          $$textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1$$



          , and therefore



          $$[textif b neq 1, text then 1<b text or b<1] text then [textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1]$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Aug 31 '18 at 16:40










          • $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Aug 31 '18 at 17:38











          • $begingroup$
            Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Sep 3 '18 at 6:33






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Sep 3 '18 at 12:14
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you have to prove $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, where $P[n]$ is the hypothesis, but sometimes you can show $P[n']$ without using the hypothesis $P[n]$. But of course, in showing $P[n']$, you have automatically shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, so you still show what is need for the inductive proof.



          To be concrete: in their proof they are tring to show that is $a neq b$, then $a<b$ or $b<a$ for any $a$ and $b$. To prove this, they first consider $a=1$, so now they need to show that for all $b$: if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. And for that, they use induction:



          Base case: $b=1$. Well, then $b neq 1$ is false, making the whole conditional if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ true. Done with base.



          Step: Suppose we have if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ for some specific $b$ (this is the inductive hypothesis). Now we need to show that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$. Well, we know that $b'1=b+1=1+b>1$, so done ... but note: in showing that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$, we never used the hypothesis that if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. In fact, we also didn't use $b' neq 1$.



          We directly showed:



          $$1<b'$$



          ,therefore



          $$1<b' text or b'<1$$



          ,therefore



          $$textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1$$



          , and therefore



          $$[textif b neq 1, text then 1<b text or b<1] text then [textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1]$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Aug 31 '18 at 16:40










          • $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Aug 31 '18 at 17:38











          • $begingroup$
            Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Sep 3 '18 at 6:33






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Sep 3 '18 at 12:14














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Yes, you have to prove $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, where $P[n]$ is the hypothesis, but sometimes you can show $P[n']$ without using the hypothesis $P[n]$. But of course, in showing $P[n']$, you have automatically shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, so you still show what is need for the inductive proof.



          To be concrete: in their proof they are tring to show that is $a neq b$, then $a<b$ or $b<a$ for any $a$ and $b$. To prove this, they first consider $a=1$, so now they need to show that for all $b$: if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. And for that, they use induction:



          Base case: $b=1$. Well, then $b neq 1$ is false, making the whole conditional if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ true. Done with base.



          Step: Suppose we have if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ for some specific $b$ (this is the inductive hypothesis). Now we need to show that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$. Well, we know that $b'1=b+1=1+b>1$, so done ... but note: in showing that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$, we never used the hypothesis that if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. In fact, we also didn't use $b' neq 1$.



          We directly showed:



          $$1<b'$$



          ,therefore



          $$1<b' text or b'<1$$



          ,therefore



          $$textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1$$



          , and therefore



          $$[textif b neq 1, text then 1<b text or b<1] text then [textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1]$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Yes, you have to prove $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, where $P[n]$ is the hypothesis, but sometimes you can show $P[n']$ without using the hypothesis $P[n]$. But of course, in showing $P[n']$, you have automatically shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$, so you still show what is need for the inductive proof.



          To be concrete: in their proof they are tring to show that is $a neq b$, then $a<b$ or $b<a$ for any $a$ and $b$. To prove this, they first consider $a=1$, so now they need to show that for all $b$: if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. And for that, they use induction:



          Base case: $b=1$. Well, then $b neq 1$ is false, making the whole conditional if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ true. Done with base.



          Step: Suppose we have if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$ for some specific $b$ (this is the inductive hypothesis). Now we need to show that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$. Well, we know that $b'1=b+1=1+b>1$, so done ... but note: in showing that if $b' neq 1$, then $1<b'$ or $b'<1$, we never used the hypothesis that if $b neq 1$, then $1<b$ or $b<1$. In fact, we also didn't use $b' neq 1$.



          We directly showed:



          $$1<b'$$



          ,therefore



          $$1<b' text or b'<1$$



          ,therefore



          $$textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1$$



          , and therefore



          $$[textif b neq 1, text then 1<b text or b<1] text then [textif b' neq 1 text then 1<b' text or b'<1]$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 31 '18 at 16:23

























          answered Aug 31 '18 at 16:11









          Bram28Bram28

          64.4k44793




          64.4k44793











          • $begingroup$
            Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Aug 31 '18 at 16:40










          • $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Aug 31 '18 at 17:38











          • $begingroup$
            Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Sep 3 '18 at 6:33






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Sep 3 '18 at 12:14

















          • $begingroup$
            Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Aug 31 '18 at 16:40










          • $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Aug 31 '18 at 17:38











          • $begingroup$
            Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Hatton
            Sep 3 '18 at 6:33






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Sep 3 '18 at 12:14
















          $begingroup$
          Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
          $endgroup$
          – Steven Hatton
          Aug 31 '18 at 16:40




          $begingroup$
          Does this mean that if we prove the $n^th$ case as a "logical identity", then we have automatically proven the case of $n^prime?$ I believe I know what the authors intended, but I am having a hard time putting in words.
          $endgroup$
          – Steven Hatton
          Aug 31 '18 at 16:40












          $begingroup$
          @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
          $endgroup$
          – Bram28
          Aug 31 '18 at 17:38





          $begingroup$
          @StevenHatton No, that's not quite it. If you directly prove the $n'$ case, then you will have proven the $n$ to $n'$ conditional. Put differently, by showing $P[n']$ directly, you will have shown $P[n] Rightarrow P[n']$
          $endgroup$
          – Bram28
          Aug 31 '18 at 17:38













          $begingroup$
          Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
          $endgroup$
          – Steven Hatton
          Sep 3 '18 at 6:33




          $begingroup$
          Please have a look at the addition I made to my original post and let me know if you agree with it.
          $endgroup$
          – Steven Hatton
          Sep 3 '18 at 6:33




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
          $endgroup$
          – Bram28
          Sep 3 '18 at 12:14





          $begingroup$
          @StevenHatton No, still not right. The inductive step that you need to show is $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, but the hypothesis is simply $A[a,b]$. That is, in order to show $A[a,b] Rightarrow A[a,b']$, we hypothesise $A[a,b]$, and then try to show $A[a,b']$
          $endgroup$
          – Bram28
          Sep 3 '18 at 12:14


















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