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Proving $||F(h)-DF(0)h||

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0

$begingroup$

Here $F$ is a mapping from $mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR^n$ and $DF(0)$ is the derivative matrix at $0$

$hin mathbbR^n$, I tried reverse triangle inequality but ended up leaving me more confused.
$delta ||h||>||F(h)-DF(0)h||geq |||F(h)||-||DF(0)h|||$

real-analysis inequality

share|cite|improve this question

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

0

$begingroup$

Here $F$ is a mapping from $mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR^n$ and $DF(0)$ is the derivative matrix at $0$

$hin mathbbR^n$, I tried reverse triangle inequality but ended up leaving me more confused.
$delta ||h||>||F(h)-DF(0)h||geq |||F(h)||-||DF(0)h|||$

real-analysis inequality

share|cite|improve this question

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

Here $F$ is a mapping from $mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR^n$ and $DF(0)$ is the derivative matrix at $0$

$hin mathbbR^n$, I tried reverse triangle inequality but ended up leaving me more confused.
$delta ||h||>||F(h)-DF(0)h||geq |||F(h)||-||DF(0)h|||$

real-analysis inequality

share|cite|improve this question

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this question

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

share|cite|improve this question

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867

asked Mar 29 at 2:37

Dillain SmithDillain Smith

867