If $(a_n)to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$Proving $b_n$$_(n=1)^infty$ converges given $a_n$$_n=1^infty$ and $a_n + b_n$$_n=1^infty$ convergeProve that sequences $fraca_nb_n = 0$Show $ a_n-b_n rightarrow 0$ then $b_n rightarrow L$$c_n$ is a shuffling of $a_n$ and $b_n$. Prove that $c_n$ converges iff $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge to the same number.If $a_n$ and $ a_n+ b_n $ are convergent sequences, then $ b_n $ convergesIf $a_n$ and $a_nb_n$ are convergent sequences, then $b_n$ converges.If $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge, then $a_nb_n$ converges.Prove that if $M neq 0$, then $fraca_nb_n Rightarrow fracLM$If $a_n$ and $b_n$ are converging sequences, and for all $ninmathbb Z+$, $a_n leq b_n$, then $lim_ntoinfty a_n leq lim_ntoinfty b_n$.Given that $a_n$ is a sequence of $mathbbR$ s.t. $a_n leq b_n$ and $a_n rightarrow a$ and $b_n rightarrow b$ then $a leq b$

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If $(a_n)to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$


Proving $b_n$$_(n=1)^infty$ converges given $a_n$$_n=1^infty$ and $a_n + b_n$$_n=1^infty$ convergeProve that sequences $fraca_nb_n = 0$Show $ a_n-b_n rightarrow 0$ then $b_n rightarrow L$$c_n$ is a shuffling of $a_n$ and $b_n$. Prove that $c_n$ converges iff $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge to the same number.If $a_n$ and $ a_n+ b_n $ are convergent sequences, then $ b_n $ convergesIf $a_n$ and $a_nb_n$ are convergent sequences, then $b_n$ converges.If $a_n$ and $b_n$ converge, then $a_nb_n$ converges.Prove that if $M neq 0$, then $fraca_nb_n Rightarrow fracLM$If $a_n$ and $b_n$ are converging sequences, and for all $ninmathbb Z+$, $a_n leq b_n$, then $lim_ntoinfty a_n leq lim_ntoinfty b_n$.Given that $a_n$ is a sequence of $mathbbR$ s.t. $a_n leq b_n$ and $a_n rightarrow a$ and $b_n rightarrow b$ then $a leq b$













4












$begingroup$



Let $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ be sequences. If $(a_n) to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$




I know that we need to show this for both $A > 0$ and $A < 0$. But I am having problems using the assumptions to deduce that



$$|b_n - B| < epsilon$$



I know that since $<a_n>to A$ then there exists an $N_1in mathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_1$



$$|a_n - A| < epsilon$$



Similarly, since $<a_n b_n>to AB$ then there exists an $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_2$



$$|a_n b_n - AB| < epsilon$$



Any help would be appreciated.



Background information:



Theorem 8.7 - If the sequence $(a_n)$ converges to $A$ and the sequence $(b_n)$ converges to $B$ then the sequence $(a_n b _n)$ converges to $AB$



Lemma 8.1 - If $a_nneq 0$ for all $ninmathbbN$ and if $(a_n)$ converges to $Aneq 0$ then the sequence $(1/a_n)$ converges to $1/A$



Attempted proof - Using these two theorems above we can write $(a_n b_n/a_n) = (b_n)$ which converges to $B$.



I don't think this is complete can someone help me add details?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 3:55










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 3:57






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. $$
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 4:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:04










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:11















4












$begingroup$



Let $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ be sequences. If $(a_n) to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$




I know that we need to show this for both $A > 0$ and $A < 0$. But I am having problems using the assumptions to deduce that



$$|b_n - B| < epsilon$$



I know that since $<a_n>to A$ then there exists an $N_1in mathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_1$



$$|a_n - A| < epsilon$$



Similarly, since $<a_n b_n>to AB$ then there exists an $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_2$



$$|a_n b_n - AB| < epsilon$$



Any help would be appreciated.



Background information:



Theorem 8.7 - If the sequence $(a_n)$ converges to $A$ and the sequence $(b_n)$ converges to $B$ then the sequence $(a_n b _n)$ converges to $AB$



Lemma 8.1 - If $a_nneq 0$ for all $ninmathbbN$ and if $(a_n)$ converges to $Aneq 0$ then the sequence $(1/a_n)$ converges to $1/A$



Attempted proof - Using these two theorems above we can write $(a_n b_n/a_n) = (b_n)$ which converges to $B$.



I don't think this is complete can someone help me add details?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 3:55










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 3:57






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. $$
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 4:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:04










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:11













4












4








4


1



$begingroup$



Let $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ be sequences. If $(a_n) to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$




I know that we need to show this for both $A > 0$ and $A < 0$. But I am having problems using the assumptions to deduce that



$$|b_n - B| < epsilon$$



I know that since $<a_n>to A$ then there exists an $N_1in mathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_1$



$$|a_n - A| < epsilon$$



Similarly, since $<a_n b_n>to AB$ then there exists an $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_2$



$$|a_n b_n - AB| < epsilon$$



Any help would be appreciated.



Background information:



Theorem 8.7 - If the sequence $(a_n)$ converges to $A$ and the sequence $(b_n)$ converges to $B$ then the sequence $(a_n b _n)$ converges to $AB$



Lemma 8.1 - If $a_nneq 0$ for all $ninmathbbN$ and if $(a_n)$ converges to $Aneq 0$ then the sequence $(1/a_n)$ converges to $1/A$



Attempted proof - Using these two theorems above we can write $(a_n b_n/a_n) = (b_n)$ which converges to $B$.



I don't think this is complete can someone help me add details?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ be sequences. If $(a_n) to Aneq 0$ and $(a_n b_n)to AB$ then $(b_n)to B$




I know that we need to show this for both $A > 0$ and $A < 0$. But I am having problems using the assumptions to deduce that



$$|b_n - B| < epsilon$$



I know that since $<a_n>to A$ then there exists an $N_1in mathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_1$



$$|a_n - A| < epsilon$$



Similarly, since $<a_n b_n>to AB$ then there exists an $N_2inmathbbN$ such that for all $n > N_2$



$$|a_n b_n - AB| < epsilon$$



Any help would be appreciated.



Background information:



Theorem 8.7 - If the sequence $(a_n)$ converges to $A$ and the sequence $(b_n)$ converges to $B$ then the sequence $(a_n b _n)$ converges to $AB$



Lemma 8.1 - If $a_nneq 0$ for all $ninmathbbN$ and if $(a_n)$ converges to $Aneq 0$ then the sequence $(1/a_n)$ converges to $1/A$



Attempted proof - Using these two theorems above we can write $(a_n b_n/a_n) = (b_n)$ which converges to $B$.



I don't think this is complete can someone help me add details?







real-analysis sequences-and-series proof-writing






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 29 at 4:22









dmtri

1,7712521




1,7712521










asked Mar 29 at 3:50









SnorrlaxxxSnorrlaxxx

1706




1706







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 3:55










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 3:57






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. $$
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 4:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:04










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:11












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 3:55










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 3:57






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. $$
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Mar 29 at 4:03






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:04










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
    $endgroup$
    – Snorrlaxxx
    Mar 29 at 4:11







1




1




$begingroup$
Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Mar 29 at 3:55




$begingroup$
Can you show that if $a_n to a, b_n to b$ then $a_n b_n to ab$? Can you show that if $a neq 0$ then $1 over a_n to 1 over a$? If so, you can combine these facts to get the above result.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Mar 29 at 3:55












$begingroup$
@copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 3:57




$begingroup$
@copper.hat Using those two facts can we say that since $<a_n b_n/a_n> = <b_n>$ then $<b_n>$ converges to $B$?
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 3:57




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes. $$
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Mar 29 at 4:03




$begingroup$
Yes. $$
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Mar 29 at 4:03




1




1




$begingroup$
Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 4:04




$begingroup$
Okay, I will edit with an attempted proof.
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 4:04












$begingroup$
@copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 4:11




$begingroup$
@copper.hat I am struggling a bit with the details
$endgroup$
– Snorrlaxxx
Mar 29 at 4:11










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Your proof is correct but I'd recommend justifying that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large. Note that this is necessary to make sense of the expression
$$
b_n = left( fraca_nb_na_n right).
$$

To justify that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large, we will use that $A = lima_n neq 0$. Because $a_n to A$, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that
$$
|a_n - A| < epsilon = frac2
$$

for all $n geq N$. Therefore, for all such $n$,
beginalign*
|A| - |a_n| leq leftvert a_n - A rightvert< frac2
endalign*

whence $$
0 < frac2 < |a_n|, quad forall ngeq N.
$$

This means that the $N$-tail of $(a_n)$ is never zero and consequently the sequence
$$
fracb_na_n
$$

is well defined for all $n geq N$ (and we only really care about the tail of a sequence when discussing limits). Then, by invoking the theorem and lemma you've cited, it follows that
beginalign*
limb_n = limleft(fraca_n b_na_n right)
= fraclim(a_nb_n)lima_n
= fracABA = B.
endalign*






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    Note that if $a_n to a$ then the sequence is bounded, that is, there is some $L$ such that $|a_n| le L$.



    Suppose $b_n to b$ then $|a_nb_n-ab| le |a_n b_n -a_n b| + |a_n b - ab| le L|b_n-b|+|b||a_n-a|$. Hence $a_nb_n to ab$.



    Suppose $a neq 0$. Since $a_n to a$, we see that $|a_n| ge 1over 2 |a|$ for $n$ sufficiently large (and hence non zero). Then $|1 over a - 1over a_n| = le ^2 |a_n-a|$ and hence $1 over a_n to 1 over a$.



    Hence if $a_nb_n to ab$ and $a_n to a neq 0$ then
    $a_n b_n 1 over a_n = b_n to ab 1 over a = b$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      4












      $begingroup$

      Your proof is correct but I'd recommend justifying that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large. Note that this is necessary to make sense of the expression
      $$
      b_n = left( fraca_nb_na_n right).
      $$

      To justify that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large, we will use that $A = lima_n neq 0$. Because $a_n to A$, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that
      $$
      |a_n - A| < epsilon = frac2
      $$

      for all $n geq N$. Therefore, for all such $n$,
      beginalign*
      |A| - |a_n| leq leftvert a_n - A rightvert< frac2
      endalign*

      whence $$
      0 < frac2 < |a_n|, quad forall ngeq N.
      $$

      This means that the $N$-tail of $(a_n)$ is never zero and consequently the sequence
      $$
      fracb_na_n
      $$

      is well defined for all $n geq N$ (and we only really care about the tail of a sequence when discussing limits). Then, by invoking the theorem and lemma you've cited, it follows that
      beginalign*
      limb_n = limleft(fraca_n b_na_n right)
      = fraclim(a_nb_n)lima_n
      = fracABA = B.
      endalign*






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        4












        $begingroup$

        Your proof is correct but I'd recommend justifying that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large. Note that this is necessary to make sense of the expression
        $$
        b_n = left( fraca_nb_na_n right).
        $$

        To justify that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large, we will use that $A = lima_n neq 0$. Because $a_n to A$, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that
        $$
        |a_n - A| < epsilon = frac2
        $$

        for all $n geq N$. Therefore, for all such $n$,
        beginalign*
        |A| - |a_n| leq leftvert a_n - A rightvert< frac2
        endalign*

        whence $$
        0 < frac2 < |a_n|, quad forall ngeq N.
        $$

        This means that the $N$-tail of $(a_n)$ is never zero and consequently the sequence
        $$
        fracb_na_n
        $$

        is well defined for all $n geq N$ (and we only really care about the tail of a sequence when discussing limits). Then, by invoking the theorem and lemma you've cited, it follows that
        beginalign*
        limb_n = limleft(fraca_n b_na_n right)
        = fraclim(a_nb_n)lima_n
        = fracABA = B.
        endalign*






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Your proof is correct but I'd recommend justifying that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large. Note that this is necessary to make sense of the expression
          $$
          b_n = left( fraca_nb_na_n right).
          $$

          To justify that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large, we will use that $A = lima_n neq 0$. Because $a_n to A$, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that
          $$
          |a_n - A| < epsilon = frac2
          $$

          for all $n geq N$. Therefore, for all such $n$,
          beginalign*
          |A| - |a_n| leq leftvert a_n - A rightvert< frac2
          endalign*

          whence $$
          0 < frac2 < |a_n|, quad forall ngeq N.
          $$

          This means that the $N$-tail of $(a_n)$ is never zero and consequently the sequence
          $$
          fracb_na_n
          $$

          is well defined for all $n geq N$ (and we only really care about the tail of a sequence when discussing limits). Then, by invoking the theorem and lemma you've cited, it follows that
          beginalign*
          limb_n = limleft(fraca_n b_na_n right)
          = fraclim(a_nb_n)lima_n
          = fracABA = B.
          endalign*






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Your proof is correct but I'd recommend justifying that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large. Note that this is necessary to make sense of the expression
          $$
          b_n = left( fraca_nb_na_n right).
          $$

          To justify that $a_n neq 0$ for all $n$ sufficiently large, we will use that $A = lima_n neq 0$. Because $a_n to A$, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that
          $$
          |a_n - A| < epsilon = frac2
          $$

          for all $n geq N$. Therefore, for all such $n$,
          beginalign*
          |A| - |a_n| leq leftvert a_n - A rightvert< frac2
          endalign*

          whence $$
          0 < frac2 < |a_n|, quad forall ngeq N.
          $$

          This means that the $N$-tail of $(a_n)$ is never zero and consequently the sequence
          $$
          fracb_na_n
          $$

          is well defined for all $n geq N$ (and we only really care about the tail of a sequence when discussing limits). Then, by invoking the theorem and lemma you've cited, it follows that
          beginalign*
          limb_n = limleft(fraca_n b_na_n right)
          = fraclim(a_nb_n)lima_n
          = fracABA = B.
          endalign*







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 29 at 4:42

























          answered Mar 29 at 4:37









          rolandcyprolandcyp

          2,234421




          2,234421





















              1












              $begingroup$

              Note that if $a_n to a$ then the sequence is bounded, that is, there is some $L$ such that $|a_n| le L$.



              Suppose $b_n to b$ then $|a_nb_n-ab| le |a_n b_n -a_n b| + |a_n b - ab| le L|b_n-b|+|b||a_n-a|$. Hence $a_nb_n to ab$.



              Suppose $a neq 0$. Since $a_n to a$, we see that $|a_n| ge 1over 2 |a|$ for $n$ sufficiently large (and hence non zero). Then $|1 over a - 1over a_n| = le ^2 |a_n-a|$ and hence $1 over a_n to 1 over a$.



              Hence if $a_nb_n to ab$ and $a_n to a neq 0$ then
              $a_n b_n 1 over a_n = b_n to ab 1 over a = b$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                Note that if $a_n to a$ then the sequence is bounded, that is, there is some $L$ such that $|a_n| le L$.



                Suppose $b_n to b$ then $|a_nb_n-ab| le |a_n b_n -a_n b| + |a_n b - ab| le L|b_n-b|+|b||a_n-a|$. Hence $a_nb_n to ab$.



                Suppose $a neq 0$. Since $a_n to a$, we see that $|a_n| ge 1over 2 |a|$ for $n$ sufficiently large (and hence non zero). Then $|1 over a - 1over a_n| = le ^2 |a_n-a|$ and hence $1 over a_n to 1 over a$.



                Hence if $a_nb_n to ab$ and $a_n to a neq 0$ then
                $a_n b_n 1 over a_n = b_n to ab 1 over a = b$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Note that if $a_n to a$ then the sequence is bounded, that is, there is some $L$ such that $|a_n| le L$.



                  Suppose $b_n to b$ then $|a_nb_n-ab| le |a_n b_n -a_n b| + |a_n b - ab| le L|b_n-b|+|b||a_n-a|$. Hence $a_nb_n to ab$.



                  Suppose $a neq 0$. Since $a_n to a$, we see that $|a_n| ge 1over 2 |a|$ for $n$ sufficiently large (and hence non zero). Then $|1 over a - 1over a_n| = le ^2 |a_n-a|$ and hence $1 over a_n to 1 over a$.



                  Hence if $a_nb_n to ab$ and $a_n to a neq 0$ then
                  $a_n b_n 1 over a_n = b_n to ab 1 over a = b$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Note that if $a_n to a$ then the sequence is bounded, that is, there is some $L$ such that $|a_n| le L$.



                  Suppose $b_n to b$ then $|a_nb_n-ab| le |a_n b_n -a_n b| + |a_n b - ab| le L|b_n-b|+|b||a_n-a|$. Hence $a_nb_n to ab$.



                  Suppose $a neq 0$. Since $a_n to a$, we see that $|a_n| ge 1over 2 |a|$ for $n$ sufficiently large (and hence non zero). Then $|1 over a - 1over a_n| = le ^2 |a_n-a|$ and hence $1 over a_n to 1 over a$.



                  Hence if $a_nb_n to ab$ and $a_n to a neq 0$ then
                  $a_n b_n 1 over a_n = b_n to ab 1 over a = b$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 29 at 4:58









                  copper.hatcopper.hat

                  128k561161




                  128k561161



























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