Polynomials vector space and direct sums Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Find proper subsets of a vector spaceVector space of polynomials with given rootNumber of irreducible polynomials of degree $3$ over $mathbbF_3$ and $mathbbF_5$.Explanation of direct sums (linear vector spaces)Vector groups' spans - proof of direct sumProving that subspaces of space of all polynomials $mathcalP$ is a vector spaceProving/disproving that a set is a vector spaceDirect sum of $T - invariant $ subspacesUnderstanding a question about vector space and subspaceShowing injective property of derivative map over vector space of polynomials

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Polynomials vector space and direct sums



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Find proper subsets of a vector spaceVector space of polynomials with given rootNumber of irreducible polynomials of degree $3$ over $mathbbF_3$ and $mathbbF_5$.Explanation of direct sums (linear vector spaces)Vector groups' spans - proof of direct sumProving that subspaces of space of all polynomials $mathcalP$ is a vector spaceProving/disproving that a set is a vector spaceDirect sum of $T - invariant $ subspacesUnderstanding a question about vector space and subspaceShowing injective property of derivative map over vector space of polynomials










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$begingroup$


I'm trying to solve this question here:



Let $V = F_n-1left [ x right ]$ over some field F (i.e. V is the vector space of all polynomials with degree smaller or equal to n-1), and $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n in F$ be n different scalars. Assume $A_1, ... , A_k$ are disjoint sets, such as $left x_1,...,x_n right = sqcup _i=1^k A_i$.
Define $V_i = left p(x)in V mid forall x_j notin A_i, p(x_j) = 0 right $.



We need to prove that $V = oplus _i=1^k V_i$.



I managed to prove this in the case in which $k=n, A_i = left x_i right $, but I'm having trouble how to use this in order to prove the general case.










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$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to solve this question here:



    Let $V = F_n-1left [ x right ]$ over some field F (i.e. V is the vector space of all polynomials with degree smaller or equal to n-1), and $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n in F$ be n different scalars. Assume $A_1, ... , A_k$ are disjoint sets, such as $left x_1,...,x_n right = sqcup _i=1^k A_i$.
    Define $V_i = left p(x)in V mid forall x_j notin A_i, p(x_j) = 0 right $.



    We need to prove that $V = oplus _i=1^k V_i$.



    I managed to prove this in the case in which $k=n, A_i = left x_i right $, but I'm having trouble how to use this in order to prove the general case.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to solve this question here:



      Let $V = F_n-1left [ x right ]$ over some field F (i.e. V is the vector space of all polynomials with degree smaller or equal to n-1), and $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n in F$ be n different scalars. Assume $A_1, ... , A_k$ are disjoint sets, such as $left x_1,...,x_n right = sqcup _i=1^k A_i$.
      Define $V_i = left p(x)in V mid forall x_j notin A_i, p(x_j) = 0 right $.



      We need to prove that $V = oplus _i=1^k V_i$.



      I managed to prove this in the case in which $k=n, A_i = left x_i right $, but I'm having trouble how to use this in order to prove the general case.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to solve this question here:



      Let $V = F_n-1left [ x right ]$ over some field F (i.e. V is the vector space of all polynomials with degree smaller or equal to n-1), and $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n in F$ be n different scalars. Assume $A_1, ... , A_k$ are disjoint sets, such as $left x_1,...,x_n right = sqcup _i=1^k A_i$.
      Define $V_i = left p(x)in V mid forall x_j notin A_i, p(x_j) = 0 right $.



      We need to prove that $V = oplus _i=1^k V_i$.



      I managed to prove this in the case in which $k=n, A_i = left x_i right $, but I'm having trouble how to use this in order to prove the general case.







      linear-algebra polynomials vector-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Apr 1 at 18:07









      az_azazaz_azaz

      32




      32




















          2 Answers
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          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          The nice thing about this question is you can be extremely concrete. Taking the $k=n$, $A_i=x_i$ case, we see that we have a basis $e_i(x)=prod_ineq j frac(x-x_j)x_i-x_j$ of $V$. (Clearly each $e_iin V_i$, $e_i(x_i)=1$, and moreover if $sum_j a_j e_j(x)=0$, then evaluating at $x_i$, $a_i=sum a_j e_j(x_i)=0$. Since we have $n$ linearly independent vectors in an $n$-dimensional space, it is a basis.)



          Now we apply this to the general case by expressing everything in this basis. First, we have $V_i=bigoplus_x_jin A_i F e_j(x)$. Indeed, clearly each $e_jin V_i$ if $x_jin A_i$, and conversely any $p(x)in V_i$ can be written $p(x)=sum a_i e_i(x)$, and satisfies $0=p(x_j)=a_j$ for $x_jnotin A_i$, hence must be in the span of the $e_j$ with $x_jin A_i$.



          Finally, note that the span of the $V_i$ contains the span of the basis, hence $sum V_i=V$, and since $V_i$ and $V_j$ contain distinct basis elements when $ineq j$ (due to the disjointness of $A_i$ and $A_j$), $V_icap V_j=emptyset$. The result follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            For each $jin1,2,ldots,k$, $dim V_j=n-(n-#A_j)=#A_j$. And it is not hard to prove that $ineq jimplies V_icap V_j=0$. So,beginaligndimleft(bigoplus_j=1^kV_jright)&=sum_j=1^kdim V_j\&=sum_j=1^k#A_j\&=nendalignand therefore $bigoplus_j=1^kV_j=V$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              0












              $begingroup$

              The nice thing about this question is you can be extremely concrete. Taking the $k=n$, $A_i=x_i$ case, we see that we have a basis $e_i(x)=prod_ineq j frac(x-x_j)x_i-x_j$ of $V$. (Clearly each $e_iin V_i$, $e_i(x_i)=1$, and moreover if $sum_j a_j e_j(x)=0$, then evaluating at $x_i$, $a_i=sum a_j e_j(x_i)=0$. Since we have $n$ linearly independent vectors in an $n$-dimensional space, it is a basis.)



              Now we apply this to the general case by expressing everything in this basis. First, we have $V_i=bigoplus_x_jin A_i F e_j(x)$. Indeed, clearly each $e_jin V_i$ if $x_jin A_i$, and conversely any $p(x)in V_i$ can be written $p(x)=sum a_i e_i(x)$, and satisfies $0=p(x_j)=a_j$ for $x_jnotin A_i$, hence must be in the span of the $e_j$ with $x_jin A_i$.



              Finally, note that the span of the $V_i$ contains the span of the basis, hence $sum V_i=V$, and since $V_i$ and $V_j$ contain distinct basis elements when $ineq j$ (due to the disjointness of $A_i$ and $A_j$), $V_icap V_j=emptyset$. The result follows.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                The nice thing about this question is you can be extremely concrete. Taking the $k=n$, $A_i=x_i$ case, we see that we have a basis $e_i(x)=prod_ineq j frac(x-x_j)x_i-x_j$ of $V$. (Clearly each $e_iin V_i$, $e_i(x_i)=1$, and moreover if $sum_j a_j e_j(x)=0$, then evaluating at $x_i$, $a_i=sum a_j e_j(x_i)=0$. Since we have $n$ linearly independent vectors in an $n$-dimensional space, it is a basis.)



                Now we apply this to the general case by expressing everything in this basis. First, we have $V_i=bigoplus_x_jin A_i F e_j(x)$. Indeed, clearly each $e_jin V_i$ if $x_jin A_i$, and conversely any $p(x)in V_i$ can be written $p(x)=sum a_i e_i(x)$, and satisfies $0=p(x_j)=a_j$ for $x_jnotin A_i$, hence must be in the span of the $e_j$ with $x_jin A_i$.



                Finally, note that the span of the $V_i$ contains the span of the basis, hence $sum V_i=V$, and since $V_i$ and $V_j$ contain distinct basis elements when $ineq j$ (due to the disjointness of $A_i$ and $A_j$), $V_icap V_j=emptyset$. The result follows.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  The nice thing about this question is you can be extremely concrete. Taking the $k=n$, $A_i=x_i$ case, we see that we have a basis $e_i(x)=prod_ineq j frac(x-x_j)x_i-x_j$ of $V$. (Clearly each $e_iin V_i$, $e_i(x_i)=1$, and moreover if $sum_j a_j e_j(x)=0$, then evaluating at $x_i$, $a_i=sum a_j e_j(x_i)=0$. Since we have $n$ linearly independent vectors in an $n$-dimensional space, it is a basis.)



                  Now we apply this to the general case by expressing everything in this basis. First, we have $V_i=bigoplus_x_jin A_i F e_j(x)$. Indeed, clearly each $e_jin V_i$ if $x_jin A_i$, and conversely any $p(x)in V_i$ can be written $p(x)=sum a_i e_i(x)$, and satisfies $0=p(x_j)=a_j$ for $x_jnotin A_i$, hence must be in the span of the $e_j$ with $x_jin A_i$.



                  Finally, note that the span of the $V_i$ contains the span of the basis, hence $sum V_i=V$, and since $V_i$ and $V_j$ contain distinct basis elements when $ineq j$ (due to the disjointness of $A_i$ and $A_j$), $V_icap V_j=emptyset$. The result follows.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The nice thing about this question is you can be extremely concrete. Taking the $k=n$, $A_i=x_i$ case, we see that we have a basis $e_i(x)=prod_ineq j frac(x-x_j)x_i-x_j$ of $V$. (Clearly each $e_iin V_i$, $e_i(x_i)=1$, and moreover if $sum_j a_j e_j(x)=0$, then evaluating at $x_i$, $a_i=sum a_j e_j(x_i)=0$. Since we have $n$ linearly independent vectors in an $n$-dimensional space, it is a basis.)



                  Now we apply this to the general case by expressing everything in this basis. First, we have $V_i=bigoplus_x_jin A_i F e_j(x)$. Indeed, clearly each $e_jin V_i$ if $x_jin A_i$, and conversely any $p(x)in V_i$ can be written $p(x)=sum a_i e_i(x)$, and satisfies $0=p(x_j)=a_j$ for $x_jnotin A_i$, hence must be in the span of the $e_j$ with $x_jin A_i$.



                  Finally, note that the span of the $V_i$ contains the span of the basis, hence $sum V_i=V$, and since $V_i$ and $V_j$ contain distinct basis elements when $ineq j$ (due to the disjointness of $A_i$ and $A_j$), $V_icap V_j=emptyset$. The result follows.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Apr 1 at 18:42









                  Sean ClarkSean Clark

                  2,093813




                  2,093813





















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      For each $jin1,2,ldots,k$, $dim V_j=n-(n-#A_j)=#A_j$. And it is not hard to prove that $ineq jimplies V_icap V_j=0$. So,beginaligndimleft(bigoplus_j=1^kV_jright)&=sum_j=1^kdim V_j\&=sum_j=1^k#A_j\&=nendalignand therefore $bigoplus_j=1^kV_j=V$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        For each $jin1,2,ldots,k$, $dim V_j=n-(n-#A_j)=#A_j$. And it is not hard to prove that $ineq jimplies V_icap V_j=0$. So,beginaligndimleft(bigoplus_j=1^kV_jright)&=sum_j=1^kdim V_j\&=sum_j=1^k#A_j\&=nendalignand therefore $bigoplus_j=1^kV_j=V$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          For each $jin1,2,ldots,k$, $dim V_j=n-(n-#A_j)=#A_j$. And it is not hard to prove that $ineq jimplies V_icap V_j=0$. So,beginaligndimleft(bigoplus_j=1^kV_jright)&=sum_j=1^kdim V_j\&=sum_j=1^k#A_j\&=nendalignand therefore $bigoplus_j=1^kV_j=V$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          For each $jin1,2,ldots,k$, $dim V_j=n-(n-#A_j)=#A_j$. And it is not hard to prove that $ineq jimplies V_icap V_j=0$. So,beginaligndimleft(bigoplus_j=1^kV_jright)&=sum_j=1^kdim V_j\&=sum_j=1^k#A_j\&=nendalignand therefore $bigoplus_j=1^kV_j=V$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Apr 1 at 18:22









                          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                          176k24134243




                          176k24134243



























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