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Finding a probability density from an exponential family using a moment generating function



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Finding a probability distribution given the moment generating functionHow to find probability distribution function given the Moment Generating FunctionProbability density function with the help of the Laplace (Fourier) transformCompute conditional expectation from moment generating functionFind the moment generating function of the random variableFinding Probability Density Function and ProbabilityExpectation and Variance using Moment Generating FunctionsMoment generating function within another functionFinding the probability density function of $Z = X + Y$Establish bound for a probability using moment generating function










0












$begingroup$


I would like to find the density of a sum of i.i.d. random variables $barY=frac1nu(Y_1+...+Y_nu)$, where the density of these random variables is $f_Y(y;theta)=e^theta y - b(theta)f_0(y)$. In turn, the density $f_0(y)$ is specified using the m.g.f. $M_0(xi)=e^b(xi)$ and a differentiable function $b(xi)$.



Edit: Found an additional bit of information that the resulting distribution has to be from the exponential family $f_barY(y;theta, phi)= exp(fracytheta-b(theta)a(phi)+c(y, phi))$, where $a(phi)=nu^-1$.



Attempt 1:



Omitting the details, I found the m.g.f. of $f_Y(y,theta)$ to be equal to $M_Y(xi)=e^b(xi + theta)-b(theta)$.



Then, I computed the m.g.f. of the sum of $Y_i$'s using this property, which resulted in
$$M_barY(xi)=left(M_Y(frac1nuxi)right)^nu=e^nuleft(b(frac1nuxi+theta)-b(theta)right)$$
I cannot find a way to transform this into $f_hatY(y; theta)$ and would greatly appreciate a pointer or a suggestion on how to proceed.



Attempt 2:



What seems like a possible solution is to recast $M_barY$ into the form of $M_Y$ and reconstruct the density from that. For example, if one were to introduce substitutions like $tildeb(theta)=nu b(theta)$ and $tildexi=frac1nuxi$, then the expressions of the two m.g.f.'s would be identical. This means that
$$M_barY(tildexi)=
int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-tildeb(theta)f_0(y)dy=
int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy.$$

I am not entirely sure how to deal with $tildexi$ at this point... Is it a permissible operation to transform $y$ in the integral into $tildey=frac1nu y$? It would then follow that
$$int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy=
int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)nuf_0(nutildey)dtildey=
int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))dtildey.$$

The density would then be expressed as $f_hatY(y;theta, nu)=e^nu(theta tildey-b(theta))+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))$ and it would have the form in the desired form mentioned in the Edit above.



Would this make sense? My math background is not really so strong, so I have a feeling that I could have made some illegitimate operations here...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I would like to find the density of a sum of i.i.d. random variables $barY=frac1nu(Y_1+...+Y_nu)$, where the density of these random variables is $f_Y(y;theta)=e^theta y - b(theta)f_0(y)$. In turn, the density $f_0(y)$ is specified using the m.g.f. $M_0(xi)=e^b(xi)$ and a differentiable function $b(xi)$.



    Edit: Found an additional bit of information that the resulting distribution has to be from the exponential family $f_barY(y;theta, phi)= exp(fracytheta-b(theta)a(phi)+c(y, phi))$, where $a(phi)=nu^-1$.



    Attempt 1:



    Omitting the details, I found the m.g.f. of $f_Y(y,theta)$ to be equal to $M_Y(xi)=e^b(xi + theta)-b(theta)$.



    Then, I computed the m.g.f. of the sum of $Y_i$'s using this property, which resulted in
    $$M_barY(xi)=left(M_Y(frac1nuxi)right)^nu=e^nuleft(b(frac1nuxi+theta)-b(theta)right)$$
    I cannot find a way to transform this into $f_hatY(y; theta)$ and would greatly appreciate a pointer or a suggestion on how to proceed.



    Attempt 2:



    What seems like a possible solution is to recast $M_barY$ into the form of $M_Y$ and reconstruct the density from that. For example, if one were to introduce substitutions like $tildeb(theta)=nu b(theta)$ and $tildexi=frac1nuxi$, then the expressions of the two m.g.f.'s would be identical. This means that
    $$M_barY(tildexi)=
    int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-tildeb(theta)f_0(y)dy=
    int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy.$$

    I am not entirely sure how to deal with $tildexi$ at this point... Is it a permissible operation to transform $y$ in the integral into $tildey=frac1nu y$? It would then follow that
    $$int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy=
    int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)nuf_0(nutildey)dtildey=
    int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))dtildey.$$

    The density would then be expressed as $f_hatY(y;theta, nu)=e^nu(theta tildey-b(theta))+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))$ and it would have the form in the desired form mentioned in the Edit above.



    Would this make sense? My math background is not really so strong, so I have a feeling that I could have made some illegitimate operations here...










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I would like to find the density of a sum of i.i.d. random variables $barY=frac1nu(Y_1+...+Y_nu)$, where the density of these random variables is $f_Y(y;theta)=e^theta y - b(theta)f_0(y)$. In turn, the density $f_0(y)$ is specified using the m.g.f. $M_0(xi)=e^b(xi)$ and a differentiable function $b(xi)$.



      Edit: Found an additional bit of information that the resulting distribution has to be from the exponential family $f_barY(y;theta, phi)= exp(fracytheta-b(theta)a(phi)+c(y, phi))$, where $a(phi)=nu^-1$.



      Attempt 1:



      Omitting the details, I found the m.g.f. of $f_Y(y,theta)$ to be equal to $M_Y(xi)=e^b(xi + theta)-b(theta)$.



      Then, I computed the m.g.f. of the sum of $Y_i$'s using this property, which resulted in
      $$M_barY(xi)=left(M_Y(frac1nuxi)right)^nu=e^nuleft(b(frac1nuxi+theta)-b(theta)right)$$
      I cannot find a way to transform this into $f_hatY(y; theta)$ and would greatly appreciate a pointer or a suggestion on how to proceed.



      Attempt 2:



      What seems like a possible solution is to recast $M_barY$ into the form of $M_Y$ and reconstruct the density from that. For example, if one were to introduce substitutions like $tildeb(theta)=nu b(theta)$ and $tildexi=frac1nuxi$, then the expressions of the two m.g.f.'s would be identical. This means that
      $$M_barY(tildexi)=
      int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-tildeb(theta)f_0(y)dy=
      int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy.$$

      I am not entirely sure how to deal with $tildexi$ at this point... Is it a permissible operation to transform $y$ in the integral into $tildey=frac1nu y$? It would then follow that
      $$int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy=
      int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)nuf_0(nutildey)dtildey=
      int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))dtildey.$$

      The density would then be expressed as $f_hatY(y;theta, nu)=e^nu(theta tildey-b(theta))+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))$ and it would have the form in the desired form mentioned in the Edit above.



      Would this make sense? My math background is not really so strong, so I have a feeling that I could have made some illegitimate operations here...










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I would like to find the density of a sum of i.i.d. random variables $barY=frac1nu(Y_1+...+Y_nu)$, where the density of these random variables is $f_Y(y;theta)=e^theta y - b(theta)f_0(y)$. In turn, the density $f_0(y)$ is specified using the m.g.f. $M_0(xi)=e^b(xi)$ and a differentiable function $b(xi)$.



      Edit: Found an additional bit of information that the resulting distribution has to be from the exponential family $f_barY(y;theta, phi)= exp(fracytheta-b(theta)a(phi)+c(y, phi))$, where $a(phi)=nu^-1$.



      Attempt 1:



      Omitting the details, I found the m.g.f. of $f_Y(y,theta)$ to be equal to $M_Y(xi)=e^b(xi + theta)-b(theta)$.



      Then, I computed the m.g.f. of the sum of $Y_i$'s using this property, which resulted in
      $$M_barY(xi)=left(M_Y(frac1nuxi)right)^nu=e^nuleft(b(frac1nuxi+theta)-b(theta)right)$$
      I cannot find a way to transform this into $f_hatY(y; theta)$ and would greatly appreciate a pointer or a suggestion on how to proceed.



      Attempt 2:



      What seems like a possible solution is to recast $M_barY$ into the form of $M_Y$ and reconstruct the density from that. For example, if one were to introduce substitutions like $tildeb(theta)=nu b(theta)$ and $tildexi=frac1nuxi$, then the expressions of the two m.g.f.'s would be identical. This means that
      $$M_barY(tildexi)=
      int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-tildeb(theta)f_0(y)dy=
      int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy.$$

      I am not entirely sure how to deal with $tildexi$ at this point... Is it a permissible operation to transform $y$ in the integral into $tildey=frac1nu y$? It would then follow that
      $$int_-infty^inftye^tildexiye^theta y-nu b(theta)f_0(y)dy=
      int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)nuf_0(nutildey)dtildey=
      int_-infty^inftye^xitildeye^nutheta tildey-nu b(theta)+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))dtildey.$$

      The density would then be expressed as $f_hatY(y;theta, nu)=e^nu(theta tildey-b(theta))+ln(nuf_0(nutildey))$ and it would have the form in the desired form mentioned in the Edit above.



      Would this make sense? My math background is not really so strong, so I have a feeling that I could have made some illegitimate operations here...







      probability probability-theory moment-generating-functions






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Apr 2 at 11:40







      J.K.

















      asked Apr 1 at 18:00









      J.K.J.K.

      1637




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