Is it alright to substitute $0$ for $1/n$ in this limit problem? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InCompute the following limit, possibly using a Riemann SumEvaluate the integral of a function defined by an infinite seriesThe beginning of a series in a limit using integralsAttempted proof of the first part of the Fundamental Theorem of CalculusIntegration as limit of sumInfinity when evaluating limits involving infinity. Is infinity zero, for all intents and purposes?How to evaluate the $limlimits_xto 0frac 2sin(x)-arctan(x)-xcos(x^2)x^5$, using power series?Limiting case of of integral.Radius of convergence involving $z^n^2$How to find the limit $limlimits_ntoinfty1/sqrt[n]n$ which is indeterminate on evaluation but is convergent?Find $limlimits_ntoinftye^n - e^frac1n + n$

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Is it alright to substitute $0$ for $1/n$ in this limit problem?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InCompute the following limit, possibly using a Riemann SumEvaluate the integral of a function defined by an infinite seriesThe beginning of a series in a limit using integralsAttempted proof of the first part of the Fundamental Theorem of CalculusIntegration as limit of sumInfinity when evaluating limits involving infinity. Is infinity zero, for all intents and purposes?How to evaluate the $limlimits_xto 0frac 2sin(x)-arctan(x)-xcos(x^2)x^5$, using power series?Limiting case of of integral.Radius of convergence involving $z^n^2$How to find the limit $limlimits_ntoinfty1/sqrt[n]n$ which is indeterminate on evaluation but is convergent?Find $limlimits_ntoinftye^n - e^frac1n + n$










7












$begingroup$



Evaluate: $limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1$




To solve this I used the following approach:
beginalign S &= limlimits_n to inftysum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-frac1n \
&= limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-colorred0 = dfrac 12int _0^1 dfrac11+x,mathrmdx \ &= ln(sqrt 2)endalign



Though the answer is correct, I am unsure about my second step in which I have replaced $1/n$ by $0$. Is that allowed? I have tried it in some other problems too and it works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Mar 30 at 14:04







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Mar 30 at 14:15










  • $begingroup$
    If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 30 at 16:45















7












$begingroup$



Evaluate: $limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1$




To solve this I used the following approach:
beginalign S &= limlimits_n to inftysum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-frac1n \
&= limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-colorred0 = dfrac 12int _0^1 dfrac11+x,mathrmdx \ &= ln(sqrt 2)endalign



Though the answer is correct, I am unsure about my second step in which I have replaced $1/n$ by $0$. Is that allowed? I have tried it in some other problems too and it works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Mar 30 at 14:04







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Mar 30 at 14:15










  • $begingroup$
    If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 30 at 16:45













7












7








7


1



$begingroup$



Evaluate: $limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1$




To solve this I used the following approach:
beginalign S &= limlimits_n to inftysum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-frac1n \
&= limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-colorred0 = dfrac 12int _0^1 dfrac11+x,mathrmdx \ &= ln(sqrt 2)endalign



Though the answer is correct, I am unsure about my second step in which I have replaced $1/n$ by $0$. Is that allowed? I have tried it in some other problems too and it works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Evaluate: $limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1$




To solve this I used the following approach:
beginalign S &= limlimits_n to inftysum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-frac1n \
&= limlimits_n to inftydisplaystylesum_r=1^n dfracfrac 1n2 + 2frac rn-colorred0 = dfrac 12int _0^1 dfrac11+x,mathrmdx \ &= ln(sqrt 2)endalign



Though the answer is correct, I am unsure about my second step in which I have replaced $1/n$ by $0$. Is that allowed? I have tried it in some other problems too and it works.







calculus limits






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 30 at 15:41









Xander Henderson

15.1k103556




15.1k103556










asked Mar 30 at 11:01









AbcdAbcd

3,18831339




3,18831339







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Mar 30 at 14:04







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Mar 30 at 14:15










  • $begingroup$
    If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 30 at 16:45












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Mar 30 at 14:04







  • 5




    $begingroup$
    I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Mar 30 at 14:15










  • $begingroup$
    If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 30 at 16:45







3




3




$begingroup$
Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Mar 30 at 14:04





$begingroup$
Just because some arbitrary manipulation leads to the correct answer in some cases, does not mean that it leads to the correct answer in other cases.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Mar 30 at 14:04





5




5




$begingroup$
I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
$endgroup$
– user21820
Mar 30 at 14:15




$begingroup$
I'm glad you ask this question, instead of assuming that what works is right. Though for the sake of your mathematical learning, next time it is better if you ask "Why should it be true?" instead of "Is it allowed?" Mathematics is not founded upon laws with penalties if they are broken. Rather, (at least some part of) mathematics is the endeavour to deduce true statements about the real world. You can write whatever symbols you want on paper, and unsound methods can be accepted by people in general, but it won't change reality.
$endgroup$
– user21820
Mar 30 at 14:15












$begingroup$
If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 30 at 16:45




$begingroup$
If things are continuous you can replace $lim f(combined)g(n)$ whith $f(combined)[lim g(n)]$ but you can not replace $lim f(n)(combined)g(n)$ withe $lim f(n)(combined)(lim f(n))$. So no. This is not valid.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 30 at 16:45










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















10












$begingroup$

"That" is not allowed in general.



It works here because you can squeeze the sum by two Riemann sums for the same function $frac12(1+x)$ on the same interval $[0,1]$:



$$frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracrncdot frac1n = sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1 leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-2 = frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracr-1ncdot frac1n$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    8












    $begingroup$

    No, this is not allowed, because for all you know that $frac 1 n$ could have some subtle interaction with the rest of the formula which cancels out its going to zero. For example in the limit



    $$lim_nto inftynfrac1n$$



    we can't just replace $frac1n$ with $0$ (yielding a limit of $0$) because the presence of the factor $n$ cancels that out. How do you know there isn't something you didn't spot in your formula which produces similar behavior? Maybe the $frac rn$ or the $frac 1n$ in the numerator has a similar "cancelling" effect on the $frac 1n$ which you're trying to replace with $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      8












      $begingroup$

      By definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinftyfrac1nsum_r=1^nf(t_r)$$ where $t_r$ lies between $(r-1)/n$ and $r/n$. For the current question the given sum matches $f(x) =dfrac12(1+x)$ and $t_r=(2r-1)/2n$. Thus the desired limit is indeed equal to $(1/2)log 2$.




      The notion of a Riemann sum is far more general than usual calculus texts will lead you to believe (most calculus texts either keep $t_r=(r-1)/n$ or $t_r=r/n$). The sum in question is a Riemann sum as explained above.




      Also in mathematics one can't replace $A$ by $B$ unless $A=B$. If you see some replacements which work out fine but look mysterious then you just need to understand that some steps are missing.




      The technique can be used to handle sums which are not exactly Riemann sums but differ slightly from it. See this answer for an example.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$




















        2












        $begingroup$

        I think it is better and safer to bound the limit from both sides as following:$$alpha n+2r<2n+2r-1<2n+2r$$for every $alpha<2$ and $n$ sufficiently large. Therefore$$sum_r=1^n1over 2 n+2r<sum_r=1^n1over 2n+2r-1<sum_r=1^n1over alpha n+2r$$Now fix $alpha<2$. Therefore by integrating we obtain$$1over 2ln 2letextthe desired limitle 1over 2ln2+alphaoveralpha$$Since the latter holds for every $alpha<2$, then we can write $$textthe desired limit=1over 2ln 2$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$








        • 1




          $begingroup$
          As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Mar 30 at 15:42










        • $begingroup$
          @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
          $endgroup$
          – Mostafa Ayaz
          Mar 30 at 15:47











        Your Answer





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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        10












        $begingroup$

        "That" is not allowed in general.



        It works here because you can squeeze the sum by two Riemann sums for the same function $frac12(1+x)$ on the same interval $[0,1]$:



        $$frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracrncdot frac1n = sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1 leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-2 = frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracr-1ncdot frac1n$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$

















          10












          $begingroup$

          "That" is not allowed in general.



          It works here because you can squeeze the sum by two Riemann sums for the same function $frac12(1+x)$ on the same interval $[0,1]$:



          $$frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracrncdot frac1n = sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1 leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-2 = frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracr-1ncdot frac1n$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















            10












            10








            10





            $begingroup$

            "That" is not allowed in general.



            It works here because you can squeeze the sum by two Riemann sums for the same function $frac12(1+x)$ on the same interval $[0,1]$:



            $$frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracrncdot frac1n = sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1 leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-2 = frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracr-1ncdot frac1n$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            "That" is not allowed in general.



            It works here because you can squeeze the sum by two Riemann sums for the same function $frac12(1+x)$ on the same interval $[0,1]$:



            $$frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracrncdot frac1n = sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-1 leq sum_r=1^n dfrac12n + 2r-2 = frac12sum_r=1^n dfrac11 + fracr-1ncdot frac1n$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 31 at 5:09

























            answered Mar 30 at 11:21









            trancelocationtrancelocation

            13.7k1829




            13.7k1829





















                8












                $begingroup$

                No, this is not allowed, because for all you know that $frac 1 n$ could have some subtle interaction with the rest of the formula which cancels out its going to zero. For example in the limit



                $$lim_nto inftynfrac1n$$



                we can't just replace $frac1n$ with $0$ (yielding a limit of $0$) because the presence of the factor $n$ cancels that out. How do you know there isn't something you didn't spot in your formula which produces similar behavior? Maybe the $frac rn$ or the $frac 1n$ in the numerator has a similar "cancelling" effect on the $frac 1n$ which you're trying to replace with $0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  8












                  $begingroup$

                  No, this is not allowed, because for all you know that $frac 1 n$ could have some subtle interaction with the rest of the formula which cancels out its going to zero. For example in the limit



                  $$lim_nto inftynfrac1n$$



                  we can't just replace $frac1n$ with $0$ (yielding a limit of $0$) because the presence of the factor $n$ cancels that out. How do you know there isn't something you didn't spot in your formula which produces similar behavior? Maybe the $frac rn$ or the $frac 1n$ in the numerator has a similar "cancelling" effect on the $frac 1n$ which you're trying to replace with $0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    8












                    8








                    8





                    $begingroup$

                    No, this is not allowed, because for all you know that $frac 1 n$ could have some subtle interaction with the rest of the formula which cancels out its going to zero. For example in the limit



                    $$lim_nto inftynfrac1n$$



                    we can't just replace $frac1n$ with $0$ (yielding a limit of $0$) because the presence of the factor $n$ cancels that out. How do you know there isn't something you didn't spot in your formula which produces similar behavior? Maybe the $frac rn$ or the $frac 1n$ in the numerator has a similar "cancelling" effect on the $frac 1n$ which you're trying to replace with $0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    No, this is not allowed, because for all you know that $frac 1 n$ could have some subtle interaction with the rest of the formula which cancels out its going to zero. For example in the limit



                    $$lim_nto inftynfrac1n$$



                    we can't just replace $frac1n$ with $0$ (yielding a limit of $0$) because the presence of the factor $n$ cancels that out. How do you know there isn't something you didn't spot in your formula which produces similar behavior? Maybe the $frac rn$ or the $frac 1n$ in the numerator has a similar "cancelling" effect on the $frac 1n$ which you're trying to replace with $0$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Mar 30 at 12:57









                    Jack MJack M

                    18.9k33882




                    18.9k33882





















                        8












                        $begingroup$

                        By definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinftyfrac1nsum_r=1^nf(t_r)$$ where $t_r$ lies between $(r-1)/n$ and $r/n$. For the current question the given sum matches $f(x) =dfrac12(1+x)$ and $t_r=(2r-1)/2n$. Thus the desired limit is indeed equal to $(1/2)log 2$.




                        The notion of a Riemann sum is far more general than usual calculus texts will lead you to believe (most calculus texts either keep $t_r=(r-1)/n$ or $t_r=r/n$). The sum in question is a Riemann sum as explained above.




                        Also in mathematics one can't replace $A$ by $B$ unless $A=B$. If you see some replacements which work out fine but look mysterious then you just need to understand that some steps are missing.




                        The technique can be used to handle sums which are not exactly Riemann sums but differ slightly from it. See this answer for an example.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          8












                          $begingroup$

                          By definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinftyfrac1nsum_r=1^nf(t_r)$$ where $t_r$ lies between $(r-1)/n$ and $r/n$. For the current question the given sum matches $f(x) =dfrac12(1+x)$ and $t_r=(2r-1)/2n$. Thus the desired limit is indeed equal to $(1/2)log 2$.




                          The notion of a Riemann sum is far more general than usual calculus texts will lead you to believe (most calculus texts either keep $t_r=(r-1)/n$ or $t_r=r/n$). The sum in question is a Riemann sum as explained above.




                          Also in mathematics one can't replace $A$ by $B$ unless $A=B$. If you see some replacements which work out fine but look mysterious then you just need to understand that some steps are missing.




                          The technique can be used to handle sums which are not exactly Riemann sums but differ slightly from it. See this answer for an example.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            8












                            8








                            8





                            $begingroup$

                            By definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinftyfrac1nsum_r=1^nf(t_r)$$ where $t_r$ lies between $(r-1)/n$ and $r/n$. For the current question the given sum matches $f(x) =dfrac12(1+x)$ and $t_r=(2r-1)/2n$. Thus the desired limit is indeed equal to $(1/2)log 2$.




                            The notion of a Riemann sum is far more general than usual calculus texts will lead you to believe (most calculus texts either keep $t_r=(r-1)/n$ or $t_r=r/n$). The sum in question is a Riemann sum as explained above.




                            Also in mathematics one can't replace $A$ by $B$ unless $A=B$. If you see some replacements which work out fine but look mysterious then you just need to understand that some steps are missing.




                            The technique can be used to handle sums which are not exactly Riemann sums but differ slightly from it. See this answer for an example.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            By definition of Riemann integral we have $$int_0^1f(x),dx=lim_ntoinftyfrac1nsum_r=1^nf(t_r)$$ where $t_r$ lies between $(r-1)/n$ and $r/n$. For the current question the given sum matches $f(x) =dfrac12(1+x)$ and $t_r=(2r-1)/2n$. Thus the desired limit is indeed equal to $(1/2)log 2$.




                            The notion of a Riemann sum is far more general than usual calculus texts will lead you to believe (most calculus texts either keep $t_r=(r-1)/n$ or $t_r=r/n$). The sum in question is a Riemann sum as explained above.




                            Also in mathematics one can't replace $A$ by $B$ unless $A=B$. If you see some replacements which work out fine but look mysterious then you just need to understand that some steps are missing.




                            The technique can be used to handle sums which are not exactly Riemann sums but differ slightly from it. See this answer for an example.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Mar 31 at 3:13

























                            answered Mar 30 at 11:29









                            Paramanand SinghParamanand Singh

                            51.3k559170




                            51.3k559170





















                                2












                                $begingroup$

                                I think it is better and safer to bound the limit from both sides as following:$$alpha n+2r<2n+2r-1<2n+2r$$for every $alpha<2$ and $n$ sufficiently large. Therefore$$sum_r=1^n1over 2 n+2r<sum_r=1^n1over 2n+2r-1<sum_r=1^n1over alpha n+2r$$Now fix $alpha<2$. Therefore by integrating we obtain$$1over 2ln 2letextthe desired limitle 1over 2ln2+alphaoveralpha$$Since the latter holds for every $alpha<2$, then we can write $$textthe desired limit=1over 2ln 2$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$








                                • 1




                                  $begingroup$
                                  As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – José Carlos Santos
                                  Mar 30 at 15:42










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                                  Mar 30 at 15:47















                                2












                                $begingroup$

                                I think it is better and safer to bound the limit from both sides as following:$$alpha n+2r<2n+2r-1<2n+2r$$for every $alpha<2$ and $n$ sufficiently large. Therefore$$sum_r=1^n1over 2 n+2r<sum_r=1^n1over 2n+2r-1<sum_r=1^n1over alpha n+2r$$Now fix $alpha<2$. Therefore by integrating we obtain$$1over 2ln 2letextthe desired limitle 1over 2ln2+alphaoveralpha$$Since the latter holds for every $alpha<2$, then we can write $$textthe desired limit=1over 2ln 2$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$








                                • 1




                                  $begingroup$
                                  As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – José Carlos Santos
                                  Mar 30 at 15:42










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                                  Mar 30 at 15:47













                                2












                                2








                                2





                                $begingroup$

                                I think it is better and safer to bound the limit from both sides as following:$$alpha n+2r<2n+2r-1<2n+2r$$for every $alpha<2$ and $n$ sufficiently large. Therefore$$sum_r=1^n1over 2 n+2r<sum_r=1^n1over 2n+2r-1<sum_r=1^n1over alpha n+2r$$Now fix $alpha<2$. Therefore by integrating we obtain$$1over 2ln 2letextthe desired limitle 1over 2ln2+alphaoveralpha$$Since the latter holds for every $alpha<2$, then we can write $$textthe desired limit=1over 2ln 2$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$



                                I think it is better and safer to bound the limit from both sides as following:$$alpha n+2r<2n+2r-1<2n+2r$$for every $alpha<2$ and $n$ sufficiently large. Therefore$$sum_r=1^n1over 2 n+2r<sum_r=1^n1over 2n+2r-1<sum_r=1^n1over alpha n+2r$$Now fix $alpha<2$. Therefore by integrating we obtain$$1over 2ln 2letextthe desired limitle 1over 2ln2+alphaoveralpha$$Since the latter holds for every $alpha<2$, then we can write $$textthe desired limit=1over 2ln 2$$







                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                edited Mar 30 at 15:47

























                                answered Mar 30 at 11:23









                                Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

                                18.1k31040




                                18.1k31040







                                • 1




                                  $begingroup$
                                  As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – José Carlos Santos
                                  Mar 30 at 15:42










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                                  Mar 30 at 15:47












                                • 1




                                  $begingroup$
                                  As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – José Carlos Santos
                                  Mar 30 at 15:42










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                                  Mar 30 at 15:47







                                1




                                1




                                $begingroup$
                                As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                $endgroup$
                                – José Carlos Santos
                                Mar 30 at 15:42




                                $begingroup$
                                As this answer explains, no, that is not correct.
                                $endgroup$
                                – José Carlos Santos
                                Mar 30 at 15:42












                                $begingroup$
                                @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Mostafa Ayaz
                                Mar 30 at 15:47




                                $begingroup$
                                @JoséCarlosSantos thank you. I got that point.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Mostafa Ayaz
                                Mar 30 at 15:47

















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