If $int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmu$ for all $fin C_0$, can we conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Linear Maps between the $L^1$-spaces of two singular measuresAre vague convergence and weak convergence of measures both weak* convergence?$int_Omega phi dmu_ntoint_Omegaphi dmu,forall phiin C_0(Omega) $ and $mu_ngeq 0$ implies $mugeq 0$?Does convergence of $lim_n rightarrow infty int h dmu_n$ for all continuous, bounded $h$ imply weak convergence of $(mu_n)$?Tricky weak-* convergence questionQuestion on Radon measure's Lebesgue decompositionWeak convergence of linear combinations of Dirac measures to a signed measuredescription of dual space of space of Radon measure equipped with topology of weak convergenceLet $mu_ntomu$ weakly as prob. measures on compact $X$. If $B$ is Banach and $f:Xto B$ is continuous, does $int fdmu_ntoint fdmu$ in norm?Equality of finite signed measures by showing that the integrals of every bounded continuous function coincide

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If $int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmu$ for all $fin C_0$, can we conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Linear Maps between the $L^1$-spaces of two singular measuresAre vague convergence and weak convergence of measures both weak* convergence?$int_Omega phi dmu_ntoint_Omegaphi dmu,forall phiin C_0(Omega) $ and $mu_ngeq 0$ implies $mugeq 0$?Does convergence of $lim_n rightarrow infty int h dmu_n$ for all continuous, bounded $h$ imply weak convergence of $(mu_n)$?Tricky weak-* convergence questionQuestion on Radon measure's Lebesgue decompositionWeak convergence of linear combinations of Dirac measures to a signed measuredescription of dual space of space of Radon measure equipped with topology of weak convergenceLet $mu_ntomu$ weakly as prob. measures on compact $X$. If $B$ is Banach and $f:Xto B$ is continuous, does $int fdmu_ntoint fdmu$ in norm?Equality of finite signed measures by showing that the integrals of every bounded continuous function coincide










0












$begingroup$


Let




  • $E$ be a locally compact Hausdorff space (if it's a considerably simplification, assume $E=mathbb R$)


  • $C_0(E)$ denote the space of continuous functions vanishing at infinity equipped with the supremum norm


  • $mu_n,mu$ be probability measures on $(E,mathcal B(E))$ for $ninmathbb N$

By definition, $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly if $$int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmutag1$$ for all bounded continuous $f:Etomathbb R$.




If we only know that $(1)$ holds for all $fin C_0(E)$, are we still able to conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly?




This might be related to the notion of a separating class: Given a family $mathcal F$ on Radon measures, a class $mathcal C$ of measurable real-valued functions is called separating, if for all $nu_1,nu_2inmathcal F$ the implication $$left(int f:rm dmu=int f:rm dnu;textfor all finmathcal Ccapmathcal L^1(mu)capmathcal L^1(nu)right)Rightarrowmu=nutag2$$ holds. Maybe we can show that $C_0(E)$ is separating. In that case, a reference to a textbook would be enough for me.



EDIT: I guess we obtain that $mu,mu_n$ are uniquely determined by their actions on $C_0(E)$-functions by the Riesz–Markov theorem. Can we conclude from this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
    $endgroup$
    – zo0x
    2 days ago















0












$begingroup$


Let




  • $E$ be a locally compact Hausdorff space (if it's a considerably simplification, assume $E=mathbb R$)


  • $C_0(E)$ denote the space of continuous functions vanishing at infinity equipped with the supremum norm


  • $mu_n,mu$ be probability measures on $(E,mathcal B(E))$ for $ninmathbb N$

By definition, $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly if $$int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmutag1$$ for all bounded continuous $f:Etomathbb R$.




If we only know that $(1)$ holds for all $fin C_0(E)$, are we still able to conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly?




This might be related to the notion of a separating class: Given a family $mathcal F$ on Radon measures, a class $mathcal C$ of measurable real-valued functions is called separating, if for all $nu_1,nu_2inmathcal F$ the implication $$left(int f:rm dmu=int f:rm dnu;textfor all finmathcal Ccapmathcal L^1(mu)capmathcal L^1(nu)right)Rightarrowmu=nutag2$$ holds. Maybe we can show that $C_0(E)$ is separating. In that case, a reference to a textbook would be enough for me.



EDIT: I guess we obtain that $mu,mu_n$ are uniquely determined by their actions on $C_0(E)$-functions by the Riesz–Markov theorem. Can we conclude from this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
    $endgroup$
    – zo0x
    2 days ago













0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let




  • $E$ be a locally compact Hausdorff space (if it's a considerably simplification, assume $E=mathbb R$)


  • $C_0(E)$ denote the space of continuous functions vanishing at infinity equipped with the supremum norm


  • $mu_n,mu$ be probability measures on $(E,mathcal B(E))$ for $ninmathbb N$

By definition, $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly if $$int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmutag1$$ for all bounded continuous $f:Etomathbb R$.




If we only know that $(1)$ holds for all $fin C_0(E)$, are we still able to conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly?




This might be related to the notion of a separating class: Given a family $mathcal F$ on Radon measures, a class $mathcal C$ of measurable real-valued functions is called separating, if for all $nu_1,nu_2inmathcal F$ the implication $$left(int f:rm dmu=int f:rm dnu;textfor all finmathcal Ccapmathcal L^1(mu)capmathcal L^1(nu)right)Rightarrowmu=nutag2$$ holds. Maybe we can show that $C_0(E)$ is separating. In that case, a reference to a textbook would be enough for me.



EDIT: I guess we obtain that $mu,mu_n$ are uniquely determined by their actions on $C_0(E)$-functions by the Riesz–Markov theorem. Can we conclude from this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let




  • $E$ be a locally compact Hausdorff space (if it's a considerably simplification, assume $E=mathbb R$)


  • $C_0(E)$ denote the space of continuous functions vanishing at infinity equipped with the supremum norm


  • $mu_n,mu$ be probability measures on $(E,mathcal B(E))$ for $ninmathbb N$

By definition, $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly if $$int f:rm dmu_nxrightarrowntoinftyint f:rm dmutag1$$ for all bounded continuous $f:Etomathbb R$.




If we only know that $(1)$ holds for all $fin C_0(E)$, are we still able to conclude $mu_nxrightarrowntoinftymu$ weakly?




This might be related to the notion of a separating class: Given a family $mathcal F$ on Radon measures, a class $mathcal C$ of measurable real-valued functions is called separating, if for all $nu_1,nu_2inmathcal F$ the implication $$left(int f:rm dmu=int f:rm dnu;textfor all finmathcal Ccapmathcal L^1(mu)capmathcal L^1(nu)right)Rightarrowmu=nutag2$$ holds. Maybe we can show that $C_0(E)$ is separating. In that case, a reference to a textbook would be enough for me.



EDIT: I guess we obtain that $mu,mu_n$ are uniquely determined by their actions on $C_0(E)$-functions by the Riesz–Markov theorem. Can we conclude from this?







functional-analysis probability-theory measure-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago







0xbadf00d

















asked Mar 31 at 7:34









0xbadf00d0xbadf00d

1,72241534




1,72241534











  • $begingroup$
    I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
    $endgroup$
    – zo0x
    2 days ago
















  • $begingroup$
    I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
    $endgroup$
    – zo0x
    2 days ago















$begingroup$
I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
$endgroup$
– zo0x
2 days ago




$begingroup$
I'm not an expert in this, but say, if $ E = mathbbR $ and $ mu_n((a,b)) = b-a $ whenever $ (a,b)subset (n,n+1) $. Then for any $ f in C_0(mathbbR) $ we should have $ int f,mathrm dmu_n to 0 $ as $ n to infty $ so $ mu = 0 $, but if we pick $ f equiv 1 $ then $ f : mathbbR to mathbbR $ is continuous and bounded and $ int f,mathrm dmu_n = 1 $ for all $ n $, so $ mu = 0 $ couldn't be the weak limit. But perhaps my reasoning is flawed. I'm not great a measure theory.
$endgroup$
– zo0x
2 days ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

The convergence in question is sometimes called vague convergence. (In fact, there are two slightly different definitions of vague convergence in literature, but I digressed.) Vague convergence is in general different from weak convergence because it is too weak to detect mass escaping towards infinity (i.e. failure of tightness). On the other hand, if we can somehow guarantee that no mass escapes, vague convergence often improves to weak convergence.



Here, let's consider the case $E = mathbbR^d$.




Proposition. Let $mu_n$ and $mu$ be probability measures on $mathbbR^d$. Then the followings are equivalent:



(1) $mu_n to mu$ weakly, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_b(mathbbR^d)$ of all bounded continuous functions.



(2) $mu_n to mu$ vaguely, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_0(mathbbR^d)$.




Since the implication (1) $Rightarrow$ (2) is trivial, let us prove the other direction. Assume that $mu_n to mu$ vaguely. Fix $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. Then for any $chi in C_0(mathbbR^d)$ with $0 leq chi leq 1$, we have $chi f in C_0(mathbbR^d)$. By splitting $f$ as the sum $f = (1-chi)f + chi f$ and denoting by $|f|_sup$ the supremum-norm of $f$, we get



beginalign*
left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq |f|_supint (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n + |f|_sup int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu + left| int chi f , mathrmdmu_n - int chi f , mathrmdmu right|.
endalign*



Letting $limsup$ as $ntoinfty$ and noting that $int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n = 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu_n to 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu$ as $ntoinfty$,



beginalign*
limsup_ntoinfty left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq 2|f|_sup left( 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu right).
endalign*



Now it is easy to check that $sup int chi , mathrmdmu : chi in C_0(mathbbR^d) text and 0 leq chi leq 1 = 1$, and so, the above bound can be made arbitrarily small. So the limsup in the left-hand side is zero, thus proving that $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for any $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. $square$



As for the generalization to arbitrary locally compact Hausdorff $E$, I guess the same proof will work when $E$ is a Radon space (i.e. every Borel probability measure on $E$ is inner regular). But for full generality, I have no good idea as I have not enough expertise in this direction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
    $endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    2 days ago











Your Answer








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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

The convergence in question is sometimes called vague convergence. (In fact, there are two slightly different definitions of vague convergence in literature, but I digressed.) Vague convergence is in general different from weak convergence because it is too weak to detect mass escaping towards infinity (i.e. failure of tightness). On the other hand, if we can somehow guarantee that no mass escapes, vague convergence often improves to weak convergence.



Here, let's consider the case $E = mathbbR^d$.




Proposition. Let $mu_n$ and $mu$ be probability measures on $mathbbR^d$. Then the followings are equivalent:



(1) $mu_n to mu$ weakly, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_b(mathbbR^d)$ of all bounded continuous functions.



(2) $mu_n to mu$ vaguely, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_0(mathbbR^d)$.




Since the implication (1) $Rightarrow$ (2) is trivial, let us prove the other direction. Assume that $mu_n to mu$ vaguely. Fix $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. Then for any $chi in C_0(mathbbR^d)$ with $0 leq chi leq 1$, we have $chi f in C_0(mathbbR^d)$. By splitting $f$ as the sum $f = (1-chi)f + chi f$ and denoting by $|f|_sup$ the supremum-norm of $f$, we get



beginalign*
left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq |f|_supint (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n + |f|_sup int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu + left| int chi f , mathrmdmu_n - int chi f , mathrmdmu right|.
endalign*



Letting $limsup$ as $ntoinfty$ and noting that $int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n = 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu_n to 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu$ as $ntoinfty$,



beginalign*
limsup_ntoinfty left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq 2|f|_sup left( 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu right).
endalign*



Now it is easy to check that $sup int chi , mathrmdmu : chi in C_0(mathbbR^d) text and 0 leq chi leq 1 = 1$, and so, the above bound can be made arbitrarily small. So the limsup in the left-hand side is zero, thus proving that $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for any $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. $square$



As for the generalization to arbitrary locally compact Hausdorff $E$, I guess the same proof will work when $E$ is a Radon space (i.e. every Borel probability measure on $E$ is inner regular). But for full generality, I have no good idea as I have not enough expertise in this direction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
    $endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    2 days ago















1












$begingroup$

The convergence in question is sometimes called vague convergence. (In fact, there are two slightly different definitions of vague convergence in literature, but I digressed.) Vague convergence is in general different from weak convergence because it is too weak to detect mass escaping towards infinity (i.e. failure of tightness). On the other hand, if we can somehow guarantee that no mass escapes, vague convergence often improves to weak convergence.



Here, let's consider the case $E = mathbbR^d$.




Proposition. Let $mu_n$ and $mu$ be probability measures on $mathbbR^d$. Then the followings are equivalent:



(1) $mu_n to mu$ weakly, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_b(mathbbR^d)$ of all bounded continuous functions.



(2) $mu_n to mu$ vaguely, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_0(mathbbR^d)$.




Since the implication (1) $Rightarrow$ (2) is trivial, let us prove the other direction. Assume that $mu_n to mu$ vaguely. Fix $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. Then for any $chi in C_0(mathbbR^d)$ with $0 leq chi leq 1$, we have $chi f in C_0(mathbbR^d)$. By splitting $f$ as the sum $f = (1-chi)f + chi f$ and denoting by $|f|_sup$ the supremum-norm of $f$, we get



beginalign*
left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq |f|_supint (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n + |f|_sup int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu + left| int chi f , mathrmdmu_n - int chi f , mathrmdmu right|.
endalign*



Letting $limsup$ as $ntoinfty$ and noting that $int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n = 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu_n to 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu$ as $ntoinfty$,



beginalign*
limsup_ntoinfty left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq 2|f|_sup left( 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu right).
endalign*



Now it is easy to check that $sup int chi , mathrmdmu : chi in C_0(mathbbR^d) text and 0 leq chi leq 1 = 1$, and so, the above bound can be made arbitrarily small. So the limsup in the left-hand side is zero, thus proving that $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for any $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. $square$



As for the generalization to arbitrary locally compact Hausdorff $E$, I guess the same proof will work when $E$ is a Radon space (i.e. every Borel probability measure on $E$ is inner regular). But for full generality, I have no good idea as I have not enough expertise in this direction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
    $endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    2 days ago













1












1








1





$begingroup$

The convergence in question is sometimes called vague convergence. (In fact, there are two slightly different definitions of vague convergence in literature, but I digressed.) Vague convergence is in general different from weak convergence because it is too weak to detect mass escaping towards infinity (i.e. failure of tightness). On the other hand, if we can somehow guarantee that no mass escapes, vague convergence often improves to weak convergence.



Here, let's consider the case $E = mathbbR^d$.




Proposition. Let $mu_n$ and $mu$ be probability measures on $mathbbR^d$. Then the followings are equivalent:



(1) $mu_n to mu$ weakly, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_b(mathbbR^d)$ of all bounded continuous functions.



(2) $mu_n to mu$ vaguely, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_0(mathbbR^d)$.




Since the implication (1) $Rightarrow$ (2) is trivial, let us prove the other direction. Assume that $mu_n to mu$ vaguely. Fix $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. Then for any $chi in C_0(mathbbR^d)$ with $0 leq chi leq 1$, we have $chi f in C_0(mathbbR^d)$. By splitting $f$ as the sum $f = (1-chi)f + chi f$ and denoting by $|f|_sup$ the supremum-norm of $f$, we get



beginalign*
left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq |f|_supint (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n + |f|_sup int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu + left| int chi f , mathrmdmu_n - int chi f , mathrmdmu right|.
endalign*



Letting $limsup$ as $ntoinfty$ and noting that $int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n = 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu_n to 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu$ as $ntoinfty$,



beginalign*
limsup_ntoinfty left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq 2|f|_sup left( 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu right).
endalign*



Now it is easy to check that $sup int chi , mathrmdmu : chi in C_0(mathbbR^d) text and 0 leq chi leq 1 = 1$, and so, the above bound can be made arbitrarily small. So the limsup in the left-hand side is zero, thus proving that $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for any $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. $square$



As for the generalization to arbitrary locally compact Hausdorff $E$, I guess the same proof will work when $E$ is a Radon space (i.e. every Borel probability measure on $E$ is inner regular). But for full generality, I have no good idea as I have not enough expertise in this direction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The convergence in question is sometimes called vague convergence. (In fact, there are two slightly different definitions of vague convergence in literature, but I digressed.) Vague convergence is in general different from weak convergence because it is too weak to detect mass escaping towards infinity (i.e. failure of tightness). On the other hand, if we can somehow guarantee that no mass escapes, vague convergence often improves to weak convergence.



Here, let's consider the case $E = mathbbR^d$.




Proposition. Let $mu_n$ and $mu$ be probability measures on $mathbbR^d$. Then the followings are equivalent:



(1) $mu_n to mu$ weakly, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_b(mathbbR^d)$ of all bounded continuous functions.



(2) $mu_n to mu$ vaguely, i.e., $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for all $f$ in the space $C_0(mathbbR^d)$.




Since the implication (1) $Rightarrow$ (2) is trivial, let us prove the other direction. Assume that $mu_n to mu$ vaguely. Fix $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. Then for any $chi in C_0(mathbbR^d)$ with $0 leq chi leq 1$, we have $chi f in C_0(mathbbR^d)$. By splitting $f$ as the sum $f = (1-chi)f + chi f$ and denoting by $|f|_sup$ the supremum-norm of $f$, we get



beginalign*
left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq |f|_supint (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n + |f|_sup int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu + left| int chi f , mathrmdmu_n - int chi f , mathrmdmu right|.
endalign*



Letting $limsup$ as $ntoinfty$ and noting that $int (1 - chi) , mathrmdmu_n = 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu_n to 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu$ as $ntoinfty$,



beginalign*
limsup_ntoinfty left| int f , mathrmdmu_n - int f , mathrmdmu right|
leq 2|f|_sup left( 1 - int chi , mathrmdmu right).
endalign*



Now it is easy to check that $sup int chi , mathrmdmu : chi in C_0(mathbbR^d) text and 0 leq chi leq 1 = 1$, and so, the above bound can be made arbitrarily small. So the limsup in the left-hand side is zero, thus proving that $int f , mathrmdmu_n to int f , mathrmdmu$ for any $f in C_b(mathbbR^d)$. $square$



As for the generalization to arbitrary locally compact Hausdorff $E$, I guess the same proof will work when $E$ is a Radon space (i.e. every Borel probability measure on $E$ is inner regular). But for full generality, I have no good idea as I have not enough expertise in this direction.







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answered 2 days ago









Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

96.5k12173283




96.5k12173283







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
    $endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    2 days ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
    $endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    2 days ago







1




1




$begingroup$
I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
$endgroup$
– 0xbadf00d
2 days ago




$begingroup$
I've found vague convergence defined in terms of $C_c(E)$. But since $C_c(E)$ is dense in $C_0(E)$ a vague convergence should imply convergence for all $fin C_0(E)$ by dominated convergence. Since the other direction is trivial, this should be equivalent, if I'm not missing anything.
$endgroup$
– 0xbadf00d
2 days ago

















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