How prove this $(p-1)!left(1+frac12+frac13+cdots+frac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2$ The Next CEO of Stack OverflowA proof of Wolstenholme's theoremWhy is this number always divisible by $p^2$Prove that $x^2 equiv a pmod2^e$ is solvable $forall e$ iff $a equiv 1 pmod8$How can prove this $sum_k=0^pbinompk(pm isqrt3)^kequiv 1pm (isqrt3)^p-psum_k=1^p-1frac(mp isqrt3)^kkpmodp^2?$Prove $a^pq equiv a pmod pq$How prove this $binomnmequiv 0pmod p$Prove that if $p>2$ is prime then $left(prod_k=1^p-1k^kright)^2equiv (-1)^fracp+12pmod p.$proving $1 + a + a^2 + cdots + a^h-1 equiv 0 pmodp$.How prove this diophantine equation $x^2-y^2equiv apmod p$ have only $p-1$rootsProve that if $ab equiv cd pmodn$ and $b equiv d pmod n$ and $gcd(b, n) = 1$ then $a equiv c pmod n$.$left(frac3p right)=1$ iff $pequiv 1pmod12$ or $pequiv -1pmod12$Prove $left(frac-3pright)=1$ if $pequiv 1 pmod 3$

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How prove this $(p-1)!left(1+frac12+frac13+cdots+frac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowA proof of Wolstenholme's theoremWhy is this number always divisible by $p^2$Prove that $x^2 equiv a pmod2^e$ is solvable $forall e$ iff $a equiv 1 pmod8$How can prove this $sum_k=0^pbinompk(pm isqrt3)^kequiv 1pm (isqrt3)^p-psum_k=1^p-1frac(mp isqrt3)^kkpmodp^2?$Prove $a^pq equiv a pmod pq$How prove this $binomnmequiv 0pmod p$Prove that if $p>2$ is prime then $left(prod_k=1^p-1k^kright)^2equiv (-1)^fracp+12pmod p.$proving $1 + a + a^2 + cdots + a^h-1 equiv 0 pmodp$.How prove this diophantine equation $x^2-y^2equiv apmod p$ have only $p-1$rootsProve that if $ab equiv cd pmodn$ and $b equiv d pmod n$ and $gcd(b, n) = 1$ then $a equiv c pmod n$.$left(frac3p right)=1$ iff $pequiv 1pmod12$ or $pequiv -1pmod12$Prove $left(frac-3pright)=1$ if $pequiv 1 pmod 3$










9












$begingroup$



Show that
$$(p-1)!left(1+dfrac12+dfrac13+cdots+dfrac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2.$$




Maybe use this
$$dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)$$
and then I can't. Can you help me to prove it?



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
    $endgroup$
    – PITTALUGA
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:09











  • $begingroup$
    I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:16







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – lhf
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:17










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:18















9












$begingroup$



Show that
$$(p-1)!left(1+dfrac12+dfrac13+cdots+dfrac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2.$$




Maybe use this
$$dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)$$
and then I can't. Can you help me to prove it?



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
    $endgroup$
    – PITTALUGA
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:09











  • $begingroup$
    I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:16







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – lhf
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:17










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:18













9












9








9


4



$begingroup$



Show that
$$(p-1)!left(1+dfrac12+dfrac13+cdots+dfrac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2.$$




Maybe use this
$$dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)$$
and then I can't. Can you help me to prove it?



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Show that
$$(p-1)!left(1+dfrac12+dfrac13+cdots+dfrac1p-1right)equiv 0pmodp^2.$$




Maybe use this
$$dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)$$
and then I can't. Can you help me to prove it?



Thank you.







elementary-number-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 15 '16 at 10:37









user26857

39.5k124283




39.5k124283










asked Nov 6 '13 at 12:04







user94270














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
    $endgroup$
    – PITTALUGA
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:09











  • $begingroup$
    I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:16







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – lhf
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:17










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:18












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
    $endgroup$
    – PITTALUGA
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:09











  • $begingroup$
    I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:16







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – lhf
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:17










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
    $endgroup$
    – user99680
    Nov 6 '13 at 12:18







1




1




$begingroup$
Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
$endgroup$
– PITTALUGA
Nov 6 '13 at 12:09





$begingroup$
Adapting Wilson's theorem mod $p^2$?
$endgroup$
– PITTALUGA
Nov 6 '13 at 12:09













$begingroup$
I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
$endgroup$
– user99680
Nov 6 '13 at 12:15




$begingroup$
I think the general expression is not an integer; at least for p=3,5.
$endgroup$
– user99680
Nov 6 '13 at 12:15




1




1




$begingroup$
It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Nov 6 '13 at 12:16





$begingroup$
It is, since every denominator appears as a factor of $(p-1)!$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Nov 6 '13 at 12:16





2




2




$begingroup$
More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
$endgroup$
– lhf
Nov 6 '13 at 12:17




$begingroup$
More is true: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolstenholme%27s_theorem.
$endgroup$
– lhf
Nov 6 '13 at 12:17












$begingroup$
Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
$endgroup$
– user99680
Nov 6 '13 at 12:18




$begingroup$
Ah, yes, I was adding incorrectly.
$endgroup$
– user99680
Nov 6 '13 at 12:18










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















6












$begingroup$

The solution below is adapted from Notes on Wolstenholme’s Theorem by Timothy H. Choi.



Let
$$
S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac1k
$$
Using your insight
$$
dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)
$$
we have
$$
2S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 left(dfrac1k+dfrac1p-kright) =
psum_k=1^p-1 frac(p-1)!k(p-k) = pS'
$$
Note that $S'$ is an integer. Now
$$
frac(p-1)!k(p-k) equiv (k^2)^-1 bmod p
$$
where the inverse is taken $bmod p$. This is a consequence of Wilson’s Theorem.
Hence
$$
S'equiv
sum_k=1^p-1 (k^2)^-1 equiv
sum_k=1^p-1 k^2 = frac(p-1)p(2(p-1)+1)6 equiv 0 bmod p
$$
This means that $2Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$ and so $Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$. (We need $p>3$ twice here.)






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    4












    $begingroup$

    As others have noted, the congruence is not true for $p=3$, since
    $$ 2!left(1+frac 1 2right)=2+1=3,$$
    which is not divisible by $9$. We can still use what you suggested to prove the congruence holds $operatornamemod p$. Let $p$ be an odd prime, then
    beginalign*
    (p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac 1 k &= (p-1)! sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 left(frac 1 k + frac 1 p-kright) \&= (p-1)!sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 fracpk(p-k) = psum_k=1^(p-1)/2 frac(p-1)!k(p-k).
    endalign*
    Since $(p-1)!$ always contains $k$ and $(p-k)$ as a factor, the fractions in the sum are integers and the result is a multiple of $p$.



    See lhf's answer for why it is even a multiple of $p^2$ as long as $p>3$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
      $endgroup$
      – EuYu
      Nov 6 '13 at 12:39






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
      $endgroup$
      – Christoph
      Nov 6 '13 at 12:54


















    0












    $begingroup$

    I came up with this proof while I work on this problem.



    We write $f(x) equiv_p g(x)$ if polynomials $f(x), g(x) in mathbbZ[x]$ satisfies $a_iequiv b_i$ mod $p$ for all coefficients $a_i$ of $f(x)$, and $b_i$ of $g(x)$.



    Then we have by Fermat's theorem,
    $$
    x^p-1-1 equiv_p (x-1)(x-2) cdots (x-(p-1)).
    $$



    Group the numbers in pairs as discussed here already,
    $$
    frac 11+frac 1p-1=frac p1(p-1), frac12+ frac 1p-2=frac p2(p-2), cdots, frac 1(p-1)/2+frac1(p+1)/2=frac p (p-1)(p+1)/4 .
    $$

    Each group has numerator divisible by $p$. Then it suffices to prove that the numerator $N$ in
    $$
    sum_j=1^(p-1)/2 frac 1j(p-j)=frac N(p-1)! (*)
    $$

    is divisible by $p$.



    We may write



    beginalign*x^p-1-1&equiv_p
    (x-1)(x-2)cdots (x-(p-1))\ &= prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x-j)(x-(p-j)) \ &=prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2-(j+(p-j))x + j(p-j))\
    &equiv_pprod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2+j(p-j))
    endalign*

    Expanding the last product, we find that $N$ is the coefficient of $x^2$. Since $pgeq 5$, the coefficient of $x^2$ in the product must be divisible by $p$. Hence, $p|N$ as desired.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      6












      $begingroup$

      The solution below is adapted from Notes on Wolstenholme’s Theorem by Timothy H. Choi.



      Let
      $$
      S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac1k
      $$
      Using your insight
      $$
      dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)
      $$
      we have
      $$
      2S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 left(dfrac1k+dfrac1p-kright) =
      psum_k=1^p-1 frac(p-1)!k(p-k) = pS'
      $$
      Note that $S'$ is an integer. Now
      $$
      frac(p-1)!k(p-k) equiv (k^2)^-1 bmod p
      $$
      where the inverse is taken $bmod p$. This is a consequence of Wilson’s Theorem.
      Hence
      $$
      S'equiv
      sum_k=1^p-1 (k^2)^-1 equiv
      sum_k=1^p-1 k^2 = frac(p-1)p(2(p-1)+1)6 equiv 0 bmod p
      $$
      This means that $2Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$ and so $Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$. (We need $p>3$ twice here.)






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        6












        $begingroup$

        The solution below is adapted from Notes on Wolstenholme’s Theorem by Timothy H. Choi.



        Let
        $$
        S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac1k
        $$
        Using your insight
        $$
        dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)
        $$
        we have
        $$
        2S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 left(dfrac1k+dfrac1p-kright) =
        psum_k=1^p-1 frac(p-1)!k(p-k) = pS'
        $$
        Note that $S'$ is an integer. Now
        $$
        frac(p-1)!k(p-k) equiv (k^2)^-1 bmod p
        $$
        where the inverse is taken $bmod p$. This is a consequence of Wilson’s Theorem.
        Hence
        $$
        S'equiv
        sum_k=1^p-1 (k^2)^-1 equiv
        sum_k=1^p-1 k^2 = frac(p-1)p(2(p-1)+1)6 equiv 0 bmod p
        $$
        This means that $2Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$ and so $Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$. (We need $p>3$ twice here.)






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          6












          6








          6





          $begingroup$

          The solution below is adapted from Notes on Wolstenholme’s Theorem by Timothy H. Choi.



          Let
          $$
          S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac1k
          $$
          Using your insight
          $$
          dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)
          $$
          we have
          $$
          2S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 left(dfrac1k+dfrac1p-kright) =
          psum_k=1^p-1 frac(p-1)!k(p-k) = pS'
          $$
          Note that $S'$ is an integer. Now
          $$
          frac(p-1)!k(p-k) equiv (k^2)^-1 bmod p
          $$
          where the inverse is taken $bmod p$. This is a consequence of Wilson’s Theorem.
          Hence
          $$
          S'equiv
          sum_k=1^p-1 (k^2)^-1 equiv
          sum_k=1^p-1 k^2 = frac(p-1)p(2(p-1)+1)6 equiv 0 bmod p
          $$
          This means that $2Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$ and so $Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$. (We need $p>3$ twice here.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The solution below is adapted from Notes on Wolstenholme’s Theorem by Timothy H. Choi.



          Let
          $$
          S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac1k
          $$
          Using your insight
          $$
          dfrac1k+dfrac1p-k=dfracpk(p-k)
          $$
          we have
          $$
          2S=(p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 left(dfrac1k+dfrac1p-kright) =
          psum_k=1^p-1 frac(p-1)!k(p-k) = pS'
          $$
          Note that $S'$ is an integer. Now
          $$
          frac(p-1)!k(p-k) equiv (k^2)^-1 bmod p
          $$
          where the inverse is taken $bmod p$. This is a consequence of Wilson’s Theorem.
          Hence
          $$
          S'equiv
          sum_k=1^p-1 (k^2)^-1 equiv
          sum_k=1^p-1 k^2 = frac(p-1)p(2(p-1)+1)6 equiv 0 bmod p
          $$
          This means that $2Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$ and so $Sequiv 0 bmod p^2$. (We need $p>3$ twice here.)







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 6 '13 at 12:56

























          answered Nov 6 '13 at 12:49









          lhflhf

          167k11172403




          167k11172403





















              4












              $begingroup$

              As others have noted, the congruence is not true for $p=3$, since
              $$ 2!left(1+frac 1 2right)=2+1=3,$$
              which is not divisible by $9$. We can still use what you suggested to prove the congruence holds $operatornamemod p$. Let $p$ be an odd prime, then
              beginalign*
              (p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac 1 k &= (p-1)! sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 left(frac 1 k + frac 1 p-kright) \&= (p-1)!sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 fracpk(p-k) = psum_k=1^(p-1)/2 frac(p-1)!k(p-k).
              endalign*
              Since $(p-1)!$ always contains $k$ and $(p-k)$ as a factor, the fractions in the sum are integers and the result is a multiple of $p$.



              See lhf's answer for why it is even a multiple of $p^2$ as long as $p>3$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
                $endgroup$
                – EuYu
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:39






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
                $endgroup$
                – Christoph
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:54















              4












              $begingroup$

              As others have noted, the congruence is not true for $p=3$, since
              $$ 2!left(1+frac 1 2right)=2+1=3,$$
              which is not divisible by $9$. We can still use what you suggested to prove the congruence holds $operatornamemod p$. Let $p$ be an odd prime, then
              beginalign*
              (p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac 1 k &= (p-1)! sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 left(frac 1 k + frac 1 p-kright) \&= (p-1)!sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 fracpk(p-k) = psum_k=1^(p-1)/2 frac(p-1)!k(p-k).
              endalign*
              Since $(p-1)!$ always contains $k$ and $(p-k)$ as a factor, the fractions in the sum are integers and the result is a multiple of $p$.



              See lhf's answer for why it is even a multiple of $p^2$ as long as $p>3$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
                $endgroup$
                – EuYu
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:39






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
                $endgroup$
                – Christoph
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:54













              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              As others have noted, the congruence is not true for $p=3$, since
              $$ 2!left(1+frac 1 2right)=2+1=3,$$
              which is not divisible by $9$. We can still use what you suggested to prove the congruence holds $operatornamemod p$. Let $p$ be an odd prime, then
              beginalign*
              (p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac 1 k &= (p-1)! sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 left(frac 1 k + frac 1 p-kright) \&= (p-1)!sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 fracpk(p-k) = psum_k=1^(p-1)/2 frac(p-1)!k(p-k).
              endalign*
              Since $(p-1)!$ always contains $k$ and $(p-k)$ as a factor, the fractions in the sum are integers and the result is a multiple of $p$.



              See lhf's answer for why it is even a multiple of $p^2$ as long as $p>3$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              As others have noted, the congruence is not true for $p=3$, since
              $$ 2!left(1+frac 1 2right)=2+1=3,$$
              which is not divisible by $9$. We can still use what you suggested to prove the congruence holds $operatornamemod p$. Let $p$ be an odd prime, then
              beginalign*
              (p-1)!sum_k=1^p-1 frac 1 k &= (p-1)! sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 left(frac 1 k + frac 1 p-kright) \&= (p-1)!sum_k=1^(p-1)/2 fracpk(p-k) = psum_k=1^(p-1)/2 frac(p-1)!k(p-k).
              endalign*
              Since $(p-1)!$ always contains $k$ and $(p-k)$ as a factor, the fractions in the sum are integers and the result is a multiple of $p$.



              See lhf's answer for why it is even a multiple of $p^2$ as long as $p>3$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









              Community

              1




              1










              answered Nov 6 '13 at 12:30









              ChristophChristoph

              12.5k1642




              12.5k1642











              • $begingroup$
                The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
                $endgroup$
                – EuYu
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:39






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
                $endgroup$
                – Christoph
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:54
















              • $begingroup$
                The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
                $endgroup$
                – EuYu
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:39






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
                $endgroup$
                – Christoph
                Nov 6 '13 at 12:54















              $begingroup$
              The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
              $endgroup$
              – EuYu
              Nov 6 '13 at 12:39




              $begingroup$
              The congruence will hold for any $p>3$ modulo $p^2$. That's Wolstenholme's theorem as lhf pointed out.
              $endgroup$
              – EuYu
              Nov 6 '13 at 12:39




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
              $endgroup$
              – Christoph
              Nov 6 '13 at 12:54




              $begingroup$
              I adapted my post and referencered lhf's answer, thanks for your comment!
              $endgroup$
              – Christoph
              Nov 6 '13 at 12:54











              0












              $begingroup$

              I came up with this proof while I work on this problem.



              We write $f(x) equiv_p g(x)$ if polynomials $f(x), g(x) in mathbbZ[x]$ satisfies $a_iequiv b_i$ mod $p$ for all coefficients $a_i$ of $f(x)$, and $b_i$ of $g(x)$.



              Then we have by Fermat's theorem,
              $$
              x^p-1-1 equiv_p (x-1)(x-2) cdots (x-(p-1)).
              $$



              Group the numbers in pairs as discussed here already,
              $$
              frac 11+frac 1p-1=frac p1(p-1), frac12+ frac 1p-2=frac p2(p-2), cdots, frac 1(p-1)/2+frac1(p+1)/2=frac p (p-1)(p+1)/4 .
              $$

              Each group has numerator divisible by $p$. Then it suffices to prove that the numerator $N$ in
              $$
              sum_j=1^(p-1)/2 frac 1j(p-j)=frac N(p-1)! (*)
              $$

              is divisible by $p$.



              We may write



              beginalign*x^p-1-1&equiv_p
              (x-1)(x-2)cdots (x-(p-1))\ &= prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x-j)(x-(p-j)) \ &=prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2-(j+(p-j))x + j(p-j))\
              &equiv_pprod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2+j(p-j))
              endalign*

              Expanding the last product, we find that $N$ is the coefficient of $x^2$. Since $pgeq 5$, the coefficient of $x^2$ in the product must be divisible by $p$. Hence, $p|N$ as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                I came up with this proof while I work on this problem.



                We write $f(x) equiv_p g(x)$ if polynomials $f(x), g(x) in mathbbZ[x]$ satisfies $a_iequiv b_i$ mod $p$ for all coefficients $a_i$ of $f(x)$, and $b_i$ of $g(x)$.



                Then we have by Fermat's theorem,
                $$
                x^p-1-1 equiv_p (x-1)(x-2) cdots (x-(p-1)).
                $$



                Group the numbers in pairs as discussed here already,
                $$
                frac 11+frac 1p-1=frac p1(p-1), frac12+ frac 1p-2=frac p2(p-2), cdots, frac 1(p-1)/2+frac1(p+1)/2=frac p (p-1)(p+1)/4 .
                $$

                Each group has numerator divisible by $p$. Then it suffices to prove that the numerator $N$ in
                $$
                sum_j=1^(p-1)/2 frac 1j(p-j)=frac N(p-1)! (*)
                $$

                is divisible by $p$.



                We may write



                beginalign*x^p-1-1&equiv_p
                (x-1)(x-2)cdots (x-(p-1))\ &= prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x-j)(x-(p-j)) \ &=prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2-(j+(p-j))x + j(p-j))\
                &equiv_pprod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2+j(p-j))
                endalign*

                Expanding the last product, we find that $N$ is the coefficient of $x^2$. Since $pgeq 5$, the coefficient of $x^2$ in the product must be divisible by $p$. Hence, $p|N$ as desired.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  I came up with this proof while I work on this problem.



                  We write $f(x) equiv_p g(x)$ if polynomials $f(x), g(x) in mathbbZ[x]$ satisfies $a_iequiv b_i$ mod $p$ for all coefficients $a_i$ of $f(x)$, and $b_i$ of $g(x)$.



                  Then we have by Fermat's theorem,
                  $$
                  x^p-1-1 equiv_p (x-1)(x-2) cdots (x-(p-1)).
                  $$



                  Group the numbers in pairs as discussed here already,
                  $$
                  frac 11+frac 1p-1=frac p1(p-1), frac12+ frac 1p-2=frac p2(p-2), cdots, frac 1(p-1)/2+frac1(p+1)/2=frac p (p-1)(p+1)/4 .
                  $$

                  Each group has numerator divisible by $p$. Then it suffices to prove that the numerator $N$ in
                  $$
                  sum_j=1^(p-1)/2 frac 1j(p-j)=frac N(p-1)! (*)
                  $$

                  is divisible by $p$.



                  We may write



                  beginalign*x^p-1-1&equiv_p
                  (x-1)(x-2)cdots (x-(p-1))\ &= prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x-j)(x-(p-j)) \ &=prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2-(j+(p-j))x + j(p-j))\
                  &equiv_pprod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2+j(p-j))
                  endalign*

                  Expanding the last product, we find that $N$ is the coefficient of $x^2$. Since $pgeq 5$, the coefficient of $x^2$ in the product must be divisible by $p$. Hence, $p|N$ as desired.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  I came up with this proof while I work on this problem.



                  We write $f(x) equiv_p g(x)$ if polynomials $f(x), g(x) in mathbbZ[x]$ satisfies $a_iequiv b_i$ mod $p$ for all coefficients $a_i$ of $f(x)$, and $b_i$ of $g(x)$.



                  Then we have by Fermat's theorem,
                  $$
                  x^p-1-1 equiv_p (x-1)(x-2) cdots (x-(p-1)).
                  $$



                  Group the numbers in pairs as discussed here already,
                  $$
                  frac 11+frac 1p-1=frac p1(p-1), frac12+ frac 1p-2=frac p2(p-2), cdots, frac 1(p-1)/2+frac1(p+1)/2=frac p (p-1)(p+1)/4 .
                  $$

                  Each group has numerator divisible by $p$. Then it suffices to prove that the numerator $N$ in
                  $$
                  sum_j=1^(p-1)/2 frac 1j(p-j)=frac N(p-1)! (*)
                  $$

                  is divisible by $p$.



                  We may write



                  beginalign*x^p-1-1&equiv_p
                  (x-1)(x-2)cdots (x-(p-1))\ &= prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x-j)(x-(p-j)) \ &=prod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2-(j+(p-j))x + j(p-j))\
                  &equiv_pprod_j=1^(p-1)/2 (x^2+j(p-j))
                  endalign*

                  Expanding the last product, we find that $N$ is the coefficient of $x^2$. Since $pgeq 5$, the coefficient of $x^2$ in the product must be divisible by $p$. Hence, $p|N$ as desired.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 27 at 22:33









                  i707107i707107

                  12.6k21647




                  12.6k21647



























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